organization did not actually prophecy the end in 1925 and 1975, then how come
so many Witnesses left the faith immediately afterwards? ("They lost roughly
three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses
after 1975, when the end didn't come as they had implied over and over again,"
said Jim Penton, an ex-Witness who writes entries on Jehovah's Witnesses for
the Encyclopedia Americana.)
It is very apparent that the WT never made a single prophecy. Rather, they
misunderstood scriptural dating and Bible chronology. It came down to simply
misunderstanding the scriptures. Take note that the WT never claimed divine
inspiration, from the November, 1915 Watchtower:
fact that our expectations respecting the "change" of the Church in 1914 were
not realized does not signify that the prophecies failed. Our readers should
know that we never prophesied anything. We merely gave our opinions respecting
prophecies and gave the reader the reasons for those opinions, showing the
chapter and verse. Nothing in the Bible declared that the Church would be
glorified by the fall of 1914. The author did express it as his opinion that the
Church would be glorified by that time, and gave his reasons for so thinking.
Now that the date has passed and the Church is not glorified, the author is not
disappointed. All the while he wished the Lord's will to be done and none
their chronology was entirely Bible based. Notice what Russell wrote in the
August, 1904 Watchtower:
harmony of the prophetic periods is one of the strongest proofs of the
correctness of our Bible chronology. They fit together like the cog-wheels
of a perfect machine. To change the chronology even one year would destroy all
this harmony,--so accurately are the various proofs drawn together in the
parallels between the Jewish and Gospel ages. It would affect the ending of the
Jubilee Cycles, the 1335 days, the 2300 days and the Times of the Gentiles,
throwing out of gear all the wonderful harmonies of these in the 'Parallel
Why did ones
thus leave the Watchtower? The answer is quite simple. Certain ones had no
true desire to follow God through their lives, but anticipating that the end
might be near, they came to God in hope of salvation. In seeing that the end
had not yet arrived, they simply fell away.
Watchtower organization rejects others calling them "inspired" yet the
Watchtower organization does call themselves "God's Spirit-directed Prophet"
what is the difference? Is there such a thing as an "uninspired prophet"?
is such thing as an uninspired prophet. Notice that whenever the Watchtower
refers to themselves as a prophet, they do so in quotes as "prophet," indicating
themselves to be a not an inspired prophet, but a quasi-prophet. Consider a
dictionary definition of a prophet:
1) A person
who speaks by divine inspiration or as the interpreter through whom the will of
a god is expressed.
2) A person
gifted with profound moral insight and exceptional powers of expression.
predictor; a soothsayer.
4) The chief
spokesperson of a movement or cause.
chief spokesperson for [God's] movement" the society is certainly a prophet, but
they are not inspired. The Proclaimers book, p708:
who make up the one true Christian organization today do not have angelic
revelations or divine inspiration. But they do have the inspired Holy
Scriptures, which contain revelations of God's thinking and will. As an
organization and individually, they must accept the Bible as divine truth, study
it carefully, and let it work in them. "
noting, with regards 1914, C.T. Russell wrote several years prior:
(time prophecies in general) was evidently not intended to give God's people
accurate chronological information all the way down the path of the centuries.
Evidently it is intended more to serve as an alarm clock to awaken and energize
the Lord's people at the proper time. . . . But let us suppose, for
instance, that October, 1914, should pass and that no serious fall of Gentile
power would occur. What would this prove or disprove? It would not disprove any
feature of the Divine Plan of the Ages. The ransom-price finished at Calvary
would still stand the guarantee of the ultimate fulfillment of the great Divine
Program for human restitution. The 'high calling' of the Church to suffer with
the Redeemer and to be glorified with him as his members or as his Bride would
still be the same. . . . The only thing [a]ffected by the chronology would be
the time for the accomplishment of these glorious hopes for the Church and for
the world. . . . And if that date pass it would merely prove that our
chronology, our 'alarm clock,' went off a little before the time. Would we
consider it a great calamity if our alarm clock awakened us a few moments
earlier in the morning of some great day full of joy and pleasure? Surely not!"
3) Has the
Society ever taught anything Scripturally incorrect?
It depends on what you mean by scripturally incorrect. If you mean, did they
teach something that was completely without scriptural basis, the answer would
be no. However, if you mean did they teach anything based on misunderstanding
the scriptures, they certainly have.
4) Might the
Society be teaching anything Scripturally incorrect now?
It is certainly possible, but through careful study of the scriptures it is
clearly shown that what the Society teaches is closer to the purest truth than
anything taught by any other religion. As time progresses, the understanding
4:18 But the path of the righteous ones is like the bright light that is getting
lighter and lighter until the day is firmly established.
"Christianity" simply cannot be correct, as they all have different beliefs.
There are differing views on many subjects, such as the rapture and others. So
certainly, as a whole there can be no doubt "Chirstianity" is wrong.
5) Since the
Organization has received "new light" regarding the 1914 generation, and
completely changed their view on this, does this mean that all the former
Jehovah's witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the same view the
organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted into fellowship
again? Were these Ex-Jw's in fact disfellowshipped for truth and knew things
that the governing body did not?
No JW is ever disfellowshipped for simply not agreeing with something. Rather,
people are disfellowshipped for trying to cause divisions in the congregation.
Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with other Jehovah's Witnesses
opinions that differ from orthodox Watch Tower doctrine?
nothing wrong with raising questions. If a person does not understand
something, they should ask questions. However, preaching their own doctrine
and causing divisions is not allowed. It all depends on ones motives and
individuals read & understand the Bible alone, or do they need an organization
and it's publications to do so?
2 Peter 1:20 For YOU know this first, that no prophecy of Scripture springs from
any private interpretation.
that scripture alone, we should know that no single person can ever grasp the
entire Bible. It is only by God's spirit direction that any can learn the
truth. This is exactly why so many have been misled.
We take note
that even in Biblical times people required direction. That is why much of the
Christian Scriptures were written. They were letters to the congregation that
provided teaching and correction. If they required teachers then, we also
require them today.
8) How do you
know that there were any vacancies, if any, in the 144,000 class if Jesus
offered this to first century Christians? How can the organization know the
exact number of vacancies today without any records from the first century?
By the simple fact that ones today have found themselves annointed. It is not
simply that one just wants to be and thinks they are, but they KNOW they are.
organization does not claim to know the number of vacancies, nor have they ever
8) Why are
you called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" and not "Christians"? Since Jehovah's
Witnesses appeal to Isa 43:12; 44:8 for scriptural support that they should be
called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" then what was the "new name" prophesied in Isa
62:2? Can't be "Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already used it 20 chapters
earlier. Could the new name be "Christian" after our savior "Christ"?
What was one
of Jesus' primary goals on earth? Well he answered that.
John 17:6 "I
have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world. They were
yours, and you gave them to me, and they have observed your word.
Jesus made his Father's name known and we are to immitate Jesus, we should do
the same. After Christ, the first century followers of him were Christian's, or
according to the history of the Jewish Tulmud, they were called Messiahites.
After time though, Christianity became corrupt and different denominations of it
were formed. Thus, we today take on Jehovah's Witnesses as a name to seperate
ourselves from false Christianity.
9) Why would
the name God gave to His people not be "Christians" since Acts 11:26 says, "The
disciples were first called Christians in Antioch"? Why is the name "Jehovah's
Witness" found nowhere in the New Testament, if that is God's divine name for
His people under the new covenant? Why would God wait almost 2000 years to
suddenly start using the name "Jehovah's Witness". Does this mean that first
century Christians were not know as Jehovah's Witnesses"?
Jehovah's Witnesses is a name used to distinguish from false Christianity. In
the first century such a distinction was not required and they could simply be
called Christians. Today this is no longer the case.
10) If the
name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never used in the entire Greek New
Testament? If men edited out the name of God, "YHWH" when they copied the New
Testament, as only the Watchtower organization claims, then how can we have any
confidence in any of the New Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or
the Watchtower organization as unreliable?
Actually it is.
19:4 And the twenty-four elders and the four living creatures fell down and did
homage to God who sits upon the throne, saying, Amen, Hallelujah.
literally means "Praise Jah." Jah is a shortened version of Jehovah.
possible editing of the NT. The Greek mansucripts vary greatly, and so it can
be difficult at times to determine what the originals said. Because of this we
must rely on the Hebrew scriptures for rechecking the NT scriptures.
11) If the
name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, "There is salvation
in no one else; for their is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that
has been given among men, by which we must be saved"? Would this not have been
the logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH"?
You forget that we were given to Jesus by God. With that said, he is our owners
(Lord) and so it is through him we are saved.
John 17:6 I
have manifested thy name to the men whom thou gavest me out of the world. They
were thine, and thou gavest them me, and they have kept thy word.
things having been given to Jesus, it is he who has the right to judge.
The Father loves the Son and has given all things into his hand. 36 He
that exercises faith in the Son has everlasting life; he that disobeys the Son
will not see life, but the wrath of God remains upon him.
So, by God giving us over to
Jesus, it then becomes by that one that we are saved.
12) What is
the correct spelling of God's proper name "Yahweh" or "Jehovah"? If Jehovah's
Witnesses maintain that "Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell is
"Jehovah"? If the name of God is so important, then should you not only
pronounce it correctly, but spell it correctly too? Is not spelling more
important than pronunciation?
Actually, neither is correct. But Jehovah is a translation of it. It is the
same for Jesus. We all call him Jesus, but his name is Y'shua. If you wanted
to get something closer to the Hebrew, you might make it Yud hey va hey.
13) Since the
Jehovah's Witness organization currently rejects most of the teachings of its
founder Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization from
1879-1916), and since they also reject "Judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who
succeeded Russell as president from 1916 - 1942, how can we be sure that in 25
more years, Jehovah's Witnesses won't also reject the current president, Milton
G. Henschel (1992 - present), as they did Russell and Rutherford?
To say we
reject their teachings is an entirely false statement, for we do no such thing.
Rather, we understand points better today than we did back then. Certainly, we
do not believe everything as they did, but the primary doctrine remains the
same or at least similar.
14) What kind
of confidence can anyone have in an organization that rejected its founder and
first two presidents for the first 63 years of its existence? This represents
about 53% of the time they have existed! Since the Watchtower organization
claims "apostolic succession" who was it that "passed the torch of God's
Spirit" to C. T. Russel when he founded the organization? What was the name of
These are false statements.
15) In the
NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" () is used in reference to God, it is
translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every
time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance"
(Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same
word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word
"prosekunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4
and used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the
reason for this inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo"
as "worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?
Well you apparently lack understanding of the Greek language. Let us consider
the definition of PROSKUNEO from Thayer's:
1) to kiss
the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence
2) among the
Orientals, especially the Persians, to fall upon the knees and touch the ground
with the forehead as an expression of profound reverence
3) in the NT
by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in
order to express respect or to make supplication
3a) used of
homage shown to men and beings of superior rank
3a1) to the
Jewish high priests
3a2) to God
said, the NWT is not the only translation that uses CONTEXT to define the
Matthew 14:33 But those in the ship came and did homage to him, saying, Truly
thou art God's Son.
Revelation 7:11 And all the angels stood around the throne, and the elders, and
the four living creatures, and fell before the throne upon their faces, and
discussed this topid further in this article: http://scripturaltruth.tripod.com/trinity/worship.html
16) The NWT
translates the Greek word "kyrios" ( Gr - lord) as "Jehovah" more than 25 times
in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10,
1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated
when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in
translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11,
2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?
It is context. Certain OT quotes are quoted about Jehovah in the NT. In those
cases it is translated as Jehovah. In cases where it is not about Jehovah, it
is translated as Lord. With that said, this is not only done with Jehovah. For
example, there are things in the OT that are written about sinful humans and are
later applied to Jesus. Does this make Jesus a sinful human? Certainly not.
Neither do quotes about Jehovah directed towards Jesus make him Jehovah.
17) To what
was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18- 19? See Jn 2:21.
18) If the
Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, why does he directly speak and
refer to himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
Because it was holy spirit speaking THROUGH a person. The scriptures make it
clear that holy spirit speaks THROUGH people.
"Men, brothers, it was necessary for the scripture to be fulfilled, which the
holy spirit spoke beforehand by David's mouth about Judas, who became a
guide to those who arrested Jesus,
Acts 28: 25
So, because they were at disagreement with one another, they began to depart,
while Paul made this one comment: "The holy spirit aptly spoke through
Isaiah the prophet to YOUR forefathers,
2 Peter 1:21
For prophecy was at no time brought by man's will, but men spoke from God as
they were borne along by holy spirit.
19) The NWT
translates the Greek words "ego eimi" () as "I am" every time it appears (Jn
6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated
as "I have been". What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation?
If "ego eimi" was translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every
other verse in which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read?
The past tense verb is still active in John 8:58, making it a Present of Past
Action. It is a different Greek construction than the other cases. This topic
has been addressed at http://scripturaltruth.tripod.com/trinity/john858.html
20) In Rev
22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of himself, " I am
the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end". In
Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who "became dead, but, look! I am living forever
and ever", refers to himself as the first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of
God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end ...".
God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa
48:12. How can this be since by definition of these words there can only be one
first and one last?
Actually, Jesus does not say this. We know this because the speaker changes in
verse 16 where he says "I, Jesus..." (Compare the speaker change in Revelation
1:9). As for the one coming quickly, he certainly is but as is Jehovah, for he
is Jehovah's "arm" that is coming with him.
10 Look! The Sovereign Lord Jehovah himself will come even as a strong one, and
his arm will be ruling for him. Look! His reward is with him, and the wage he
pays is before him.
We notice in
verse 7 that an angel also says he is coming quickly. This topic really has
already been addressed here: http://scripturaltruth.tripod.com/trinity/alphaomega.html
21) Jn 1:3
says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa 44:24, God says that he "by
myself" created the heavens and the earth and asks the question "Who was with
me?" when the heavens and the earth were created. How can this be since if
Jesus was created by God, then he would have been with God when everything else
Actually it doesn't say Jesus created anything, for he did not. Rather, it uses
the Greek preposition DIA which means THROUGH, showing Jesus as an intermediate
agent in GOD's creation.
In Isaiah we
also note that God says he himself is the only Savior (Isaiah 43:11), yet he
raised up many saviors in the Hebrew scriptures to carry out salvation from him
(Judges 3:15; Isaiah 19:20).
22) Col 1:16,
in talking about Jesus, says that "... All [other] things have been created
through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the time of
creation, would an angel have created all things for himself? Isa 43:7 says God
created "everyone ... for my OWN glory...".
Again, Jesus (Michael) did not create a single thing. These things were created
"through" not "by" him. Any translation that uses the word "by" is an
inaccurate translation. Jesus is the firstborn, he was created before
everything else. So he is not just any angel, but he is greater than all of
Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally.
If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible
say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8).
It says the 12 tribes of Israel. But this is not the literal 12 tribes of
Israel, for both Levi and Joseph did not belong to the 12 tribes. Rather, this
is the "Israel of God" (Gal 6:16)
soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the
soul in Mt 10:28?
The soul is not the body. The soul is the person. The person Adam became "a
living soul" when he recieved "the breath of life." (Genesis 2:7)
25) The NWT
translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god".
How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god" if God says in Deut 32:39, "See now that
I-I am he, and there are NO gods together WITH me ..."?
You have not considered context. Jehovah is showing that there are not these
idol gods. Rather, angels are called gods (Psalms 8:5) as are humans (Psalms
82:1,6) and others.
Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6 ("For there has been a child
born to us, there has been a son given to us ... And his name will be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God ..."). Jehovah is referred to as "Mighty God"
in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be if there is only one God (1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10,
Well we have already established that others are called gods. With that said,
humans are also called 'el Gibborw (Mighty God) at Ezekiel 32:21 (the original
Hebrew must be referenced to see this).
27) If Jesus
was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, why
does Jn 20:25 say "...Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS ...",
indicating that there was more than one nail used for his hands?
Actually, scholars suggest that up to 14 nails were used. Consider what Vine's
Dictionary of New Testiment Words says of the Cross:
"<A-1,Noun,4716,stauros> denotes, primarily, "an upright pale or stake." On such
malefactors were nailed for execution. Both the noun and the verb stauroo, "to
fasten to a stake or pale," are originally to be distinguished from the
ecclesiastical form of a two beamed "cross." The shape of the latter had its
origin in ancient Chaldea, and was used as the symbol of the god Tammuz (being
in the shape of the mystic Tau, the initial of his name) in that country and in
adjacent lands, including Egypt. By the middle of the 3rd cent. A.D. the
churches had either departed from, or had travestied, certain doctrines of the
Christian faith. In order to increase the prestige of the apostate
ecclesiastical system pagans were received into the churches apart from
regeneration by faith, and were permitted largely to retain their pagan signs
and symbols. Hence the Tau or T, in its most frequent form, with the
cross-piece lowered, was adopted to stand for the "cross" of Christ."
the phrase "Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the
comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the
comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today"
instead of after "you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk
23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other
verses in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the
word "you", how would it read?
Actually the Greek grammar changes slightly here. However, for this discussion
we will simply point out this fact. Vatican Manuscript 1209, one of the oldest
existing manuscripts that we have today, places the comma in the eact same spot
as the NWT.
29) The NWT
translates the Greek word "esti" ( estin) as "is" in almost every instance in
the New Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English
Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate this Greek word as "means" in Mt
26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of
the word "esti"? If the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word "esti"
as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say?
Context. Bread is not literally flesh and blood is not literally wine. To
prove it, take the bread and wine and then make yourself throw up. Guess what,
it will still only be partially digested break and wine. It is not literally
flesh and blood, but it is symbolic.
30) In Jn
20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This
translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in
Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really
wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making
either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?
Because Thomas did not actually call Jesus this. First we take note that just
because someone is being addressed does not mean they are actually being called
20:12 And Jonathan said to David, Jehovah, God of Israel, when I sound my
father about this time to-morrow, or the next day, and behold, there be good
toward David, and I then send not to thee, and apprise thee of it,
calling David "Jehovah"? No, but he is speaking to David when he says this.
With that said, Smart's Rule of KOINE Greek shows that there are actually two
persons under consideration. It states the following:
KOINE Greek when the copulative KAI connects two substantives of personal
description in regimen and the first substantive alone is modified by the
personal pronoun in the genitive or repeated for perspicuity two persons or
groups of persons are in view."
Greek rule considered, we have no choice but to accept that there are two
persons being considered. Finally, we take note that the Greek form is the
nominative form (expression) and not the vocative (direct address), showing
that Thomas was not actually calling Jesus this, but making an expression.
further considered in this article: http://scripturaltruth.tripod.com/trinity/john2028.html
31) If Christ
will not have a visible return to earth, then how will he be seen by "ALL the
tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30) and by "EVERY eye" (Rev 1:7) when he returns?
What is it
that causes them to be upset in Matthew? It is the sign of him. Why? Because
it brings distress. Revelation 1:7 says that he is on a cloud. What does that
At this Jehovah said to Moses: "Look! I am coming to you in a dark cloud, in
order that the people may hear when I speak with you, and that in you also they
may put faith to time indefinite." Then Moses reported the words of the people
on a cloud to Moses and Moses did not see him, much like they will not literally
see Jesus. Rather, they will see his "sign" Jesus as at Matthew 24:30.
32) If the
Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, how could he: Be referred to as
"he" and "him" in Jn 16:7-8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness - Jn 15:26; Feel hurt
- Isa 63:10; Be blasphemed against - Mk 3:29; Say things - Ezek 3:24, Acts
8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11, Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire - Gal 5:17; Be outraged
- Heb 10:29; Search -1Cor 2:10; Comfort - Acts 9:31; Be loved - Rom 15:30 ; Be
lied to and be God - Acts 5:3-4?
Well to address the first point, it is only "he" when grammar requires it.
Certian Greek titles are masculine and certain are feminine. This is why, for
example, wisdom in Proverbs is refered to as "she", because CHOKMAH is
feminine. Other times however, it should be "it". With John 16:7 and 8, for
example, Comforter is the Greek masculine noun PARAKLETOS, requiring the use of
the male gender.
holy spirit does something, as we showed early about it speaking, it does so
THROUGH people. So when it is lied to, it is the person with holy spirit that
is lied to, for example. We are seeing a personification of this, just like we
see the personification of blood and water.
1Jo 5:7 For
they that bear witness are three: 8 the Spirit, and the water, and the blood;
and the three agree in one.
and water persons so as to bear witness? No they are not, yet they are still
said to be such. Just as holy spirit is. Rather than being group with
persons, holy spirit is group amoung "things", truly showing what it is.
Corinthians 6:6 by purity, by knowledge, by long-suffering, by kindness, by holy
spirit, by love free from hypocrisy,
33) What is
the meaning of Rev 14:9-11, which says, "... If anyone worships the wild beast
... he shall be tormented with fire and sulphur ... And the smoke of their
torment ascends forever and ever ...". Where could "anyone" be "tormented ...
forever and ever"?
Well the root form of the Greek word for torment, basanismou, actually has a
root form which denotes being jailed or imprisoned (Matthew 18:34). We must
also take note that the book of Revelation is heavily symbolic, so we must take
this in light of other scriptures and what these say happens to the person. For
Don't be afraid of those who kill the body, but are not able to kill the
soul. Rather, fear him who is able to destroy both soul and
body in Gehinnom.
Understanding this, we know that the body and soul of the wicked are DESTROYED.
Notice this scripture from the BBE:
2 Peter 3:9
The Lord is not slow in keeping his word, as he seems to some, but he is waiting
in mercy for you, not desiring the destruction of any, but that all may be
turned from their evil ways.
34) Jn 1:3
says in reference to Christ, "All things came into existence through him, and
apart from him not even one thing came into existence". How could Christ have
been a created being if ALL things came into existence through him? If Jesus
was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create
You must understand the Greek word for all, PANTA. The use of this word in no
way excludes Jesus from the group of creation. Reference this article:
35) If the
spirit of a man has no existence apart from the body, why does Stephen just
before his death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to "receive my spirit"? How could
Jesus receive Stephen's spirit if a man's spirit ceases to exist when the body
The spirit does exist from the body, but the spirit is nothing more than the
"breath of life." We all share one spirit, even animals. One force that
sustains us all.
Ecclesiastes 3:19 For there is an eventuality as respects the sons of mankind
and an eventuality as respects the beast, and they have the same eventuality.
As the one dies, so the other dies; and they all have but one spirit, so that
there is no superiority of the man over the beast, for everything is vanity. 20
All are going to one place. They have all come to be from the dust, and they
are all returning to the dust. 21 Who is there knowing the spirit of the sons
of mankind, whether it is ascending upward; and the spirit of the beast, whether
it is descending downward to the earth?
36) If the
great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17
say, "...we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught
away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall always be with
This is talking about those of the 144,000 who are still alive.
37) If there
are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd
of people who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why does
Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?
But is it
not one hope? We all share the hope of a resurrection and everlasting life.
Where we spend that life does not change the hope.
38) If there
is no conscious awareness after death, how could the "spirits in prison" be
preached to by Christ after his death (1Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good
news be "declared also to the dead" (1Pet 4:6)?
1 Peter 4:6 is referencing those spiritually dead (Matthew 8:28). The spirits
that Jesus preached to were fallen angels:
2 Peter 2:4
For if God did not spare sinning angels, but delivered
them to chains of darkness, thrust down into
Tartarus, having been kept to judgment;
39) In Phil
2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other", even though it doesn't appear in the
original Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this
word? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How
would the verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does
scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.
Because it is grammatically correct to do so. This topic has been addressed at
Additionally, we note it is for added clarity. God GAVE him that name, yet he
did not make it greater than his own name. We note the NWT is not the only
translation to do this:
Then God gave Christ the highest place and honored his name above all others.
For this reason God raised him to the highest place above and gave him the name
that is greater than any other name.
This is why God has given him an exceptional honor- the name honored above all
40) Heb 9:28,
speaking of Christ, says "... and the second time he appears..." How can Christ
APPEAR a second time if he will not have a visible return to earth?
It says he will only appear to those who look for him, his true followers. So
only they would know of his presence. If he appeared in a literal sense it
would not be to just those, but to all people.
thus the Christ also, having been once offered to bear the sins of many, shall
appear to those that look for him the second time without sin for salvation.
41) Amos 4:11
says, "'I caused an overthrow among you people, like God's overthrow of Sodom
and Gomorrah. And you came to be like a log snatched out of [the] burning; but
you did not come back to me,' is the utterance of Jehovah." How can Jehovah
speaking in this verse refer to another person as God ("... like GOD'S overthrow
of Sodom ...")?
This was actually Jehovah's representives, angels, who spoke as Jehovah. This
is discussed in this article:
42) In Rev
19:1, where does it say that the "great crowd" will be?
Note what this verse actually says:
19:1 And after
these things, I heard a great voice of a large multitude in Heaven, saying,
Hallelujah! The salvation and the glory and the honor and the power of the Lord
voice of a great multitude, or crowd, does not in any way prove that this must
be the same great crowd spoken of in Revelation 7. Rather, this could be and
likely is angels speaking.
Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell
the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus')
name instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn 15:21, and Acts
It is both. It does not really matter. You are again focusing on the name
Jehovah's Witnesses, which is a tired point.
44) In Col
1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word "other" 4 times even though it is not in the
original Greek (see Gr-Engl interlinear). Why is the word "other" inserted? How
would these verses read if the word "other" had not been inserted?
Again, I will reference this article:
45) In 2Pet
1:1, the NWT inserts the word "the". Why is it inserted? How would the verse
read if the word "the" was not inserted? What does scripture say about adding
words to the Bible? (See Prov 30:5-6).
The word is there for clarity. It does not change the meaning. It is worth
noting that many Greek manscripts actually read "Lord" instead of "God" here.
Consider how the Geneva Bible renders it:
2 Peter 1:1
- Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have
obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our
Saviour Jesus Christ:
46) In the
sermon on the mount, when Jesus was addressing the "great crowd" (Lk 6:17), why
did he tell them in Lk 6:22-23, "...your reward is great in heaven ..."?
Because he was addressing a great crowd of people. You are taking the use of
the term "great crowd" in an absurdly fixed way. I could go to a concert and
say there was a "great crowd", but in that group there could be Satan
worshippers. That does not mean they are the same "great crowd" that will live
47) In Mt
1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been given the name which means
"With Us Is God"?
And Jehu means "Jehovah is He", but does that does not mean Jehu is Jehovah.
Rather, it is just a name.
48) In Rev
14:13, how can the dead be "happy" and find "rest" if there is no conscious
awareness after death?
is a classic Trinitarian case of ripping something out of context. This is what
the verse actually says:
14:13 And I heard
a voice out of Heaven saying to me, Write: Blessed
are the dead, the ones dying in the Lord from now. Yes, says the
Spirit, they shall rest from their labors, and their works follow with them.
49) If Jesus
was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, instead
of on a cross with both hands outstretched, why does Mt 27:37 say that the sign
"This is Jesus the King of the Jews" was "posted above his HEAD" instead of
being posted above his hands? How could it have been posted above his head if
his arms were stretched out over his head?
is quite a streach in that it was over his head. As general speach, one says
something is over a persons head when it is higher than the one.
50) In Lk
4:12, the NWT translates "kyrios" ( Gr-lord) as "Jehovah", which makes the verse
read "... 'You shall not put Jehovah your God to the test.'" See Gr-Engl
Interlinear. Why is kyrios translated as "Jehovah" in this verse? Was the
devil, in Lk 4:9-11, putting Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the test?
Because it was God, not Jesus, that was truly being tested in that verse.
for it is written, 'He will give his angels a charge concerning you, to preserve
testing Jehovah to see if he would really send his angels to preserve Jesus. He
said not to test Jehovah, for he knew that his Father would send the angels.
51) The Bible
says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it
be then, that the Bible repeatedly says that Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk
2:11, Phil 3:20, Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?
Because Jehovah God is our Savior THROUGH Jesus, much like he was through many
in the OT.
And the sons of Israel began to call to Jehovah for aid. Then Jehovah raised a
savior up for the sons of Israel that he might save them, Oth'ni·el the son of
Ke'naz, the younger brother of Ca'leb.
23:5 Accordingly David went with his men to Kei'lah and fought against the
Phi·lis'tines and drove off with their livestock, but struck them down with a
great slaughter; and David came to be the savior of the inhabitants of Kei'lah.
2 Kings 13:
5 Consequently Jehovah gave Israel a savior, so that they came out from under
the hand of Syria, and the sons of Israel continued to dwell in their homes as
And it must prove to be for a sign and for a witness to Jehovah of armies in the
land of Egypt; for they will cry out to Jehovah because of the oppressors, and
he will send them a savior, even a grand one, who will actually deliver them.
this article for further information:
to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol
"... become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how
could the souls in Sheol "... speak up and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could
the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give
close examination even to you, [saying,] 'Is this the man'..." (v. 16-17), and
how would you be aware that this was happening?
It is not literal, it is symbolic and a proverb.
that you must raise up this proverbial saying against the king of Babylon and
53) Heb 3:1
refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus
says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother ...". Therefore,
according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a
partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society
teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?
Was the book of Hebrews not written to the Hebrew congregation? Was Paul not
specifically addressing that group? The answer is without question yes. He
was addressing his brothers who had this calling. Of greater note is that the
heavenly calling does not nessecarily denote actually going to heaven. Rather,
klesis, means an invitation. They were invited to salvation, not so certainly
in heaven, but just invited to Christ.
11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel,
Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching out for a better [place],
that is, one belonging to heaven..." and, "... their God for he has made a city
ready for them." The footnote on the word "city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of
Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the
Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to heaven are the 144,000
spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived after Christ died?
Context, context, context. Hebrews 11:14 For those who say such things give
evidence that they are earnestly seeking a place of their own.
It is not
speaking of these faithful ones of the OT, but it talking about a different
group. One must read the context of verse 16 to understand it.
55) Rev 20:10
says, "And the Devil ... the wild beast and the false prophet [already were];
and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever."Where will the
devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be "tormented day and night
forever and ever"?
As we discussed earlier, this truly denotes a confinement. We are told that
they will be hurled into the lake of fire and this fire means the second
death. If they experiance the second death they can not literally be
tormented, but confined to that destruction. (Revelation 20:7, 14) It is
important to keep in
56) In Lk
24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds in his body
as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed by God after he
died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body which had the wounds in his
hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a spirit, "because a spirit
does not have flesh and bones just as you behold that I have" (Lk 24:39)?
This topic has been addressed at
57) If Christ
was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then
before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been without
wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without wisdom?
Actually, if Jesus was not wisdom then God did not have wisdom. Rather, by
Jesus being the PERSONIFICATION of wisdom, God always had wisdom, but the one
personified as such did not exist.
58) Rev 7:11
says that "before the throne" is in heaven where "all the angels were standing".
Rev 14:2-3 says "And I heard a sound out of heaven ... And they were singing as
if a new song before the throne ...". Rev 7:9 says, "... look, a great crowd
... standing before the throne...". Rev 7:14-15 says, "...There are the ones
that come out of the great tribulation ... That is why they are before the
throne of God ...". Therefore, if "before the throne " means in heaven (Rev
7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great crowd" is "before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15),
where does that mean that the great crowd will be?
Actually, "before the throne" does not mean in heaven. The word for "before",
enopion, literally means in sight of. Thus, to be in sight of something does
not mean one is actually there.
59) If Jesus
Christ is Michael the Archangel, how can Mt 25:31 say, "When the Son of man
arrives in his glory, and ALL the angels with him, ...". Since "all the angels"
would certainly include Michael the Archangel, is it possible that Jesus could
return with himself?
Understanding the use of the word PANTA, Jesus being the archangel does not rule
out all the angels being with him. Consider this article for further details:
60) In Lk
20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all living to him (God)",
since they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?
truly dead even to Jesus? Not at all. Note what he says:
and, after stepping in, he said to them: "Why are YOU causing noisy confusion
and weeping? The young child has not died, but is sleeping."
To Jesus and
to God, a dead person is not truly dead but only sleeping from something to be
awoken from. Only in the second death is one truly dead.
61) If the
soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of
those who had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out "with a loud voice,
saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord ..."?
In the same way that Abel's blood cried out of course. It was not literally
alive, crying out, but it was symbolic of his deserving vengence. (Genesis
62) In Mt
28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people of all the nations ...in the
name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit". Why would the
disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of anybody or anything who was
not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command of Jesus and baptize "in the
name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit"?
Well if the
three were God, Jesus would have simply said "Baptize them in the name of God."
Yet, he did not. Each one has an important role and in recognizing who they
are we are baptized in their name.
63) If the
human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or
come back into a person (1Kings 17:21)?
This is of course speaking of the person dying or coming back to life. The
Bible makes it very clear that the soul dies. (Num. 31:19; Judg. 16:30; Ezek.
Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be destroyed or
depopulated. How can it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6, "... the earth
itself will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere gnat ...", and
that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and earth will pass away...", and that John
says in Rev 21:1 that he saw "... a new heaven and a NEW earth, for the former
heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is no more."?
So I suspect that the scriptures that clearly say the earth will last forever
1: 4 A generation is going, and a generation is coming; but the earth is
standing even to time indefinite.
And he began to build his sanctuary just like the heights, Like the earth that
he has founded to time indefinite.
He has founded the earth upon its established places; It will not be made to
totter to time indefinite, or forever.
90 Your faithfulness is for generation after generation. You have solidly fixed
the earth, that it may keep standing.
said, it is clear the earth will not literally be destroyed, but this is
symbolic. The Bible has spoken of the earth melting in destruction. Has it
literally been destroyed, or was this symbolic of something else?
Psalms 46: 6
The nations became boisterous, the kingdoms tottered; He sounded with his voice,
the earth proceeded to melt.
clearly symbolic of God's removal of the wickedness.
to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after they were killed that could
be thrown into Gehenna?
I suggest you read more of the scriptures.
10:28 And do not become fearful of those who kill the body but cannot kill the
soul; but rather be in fear of him that can destroy both soul and body in
said, the soul is clearly DESTROYED.
66) Who or
what does the spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom 8:9) refer to? In Gal
4:6, how is it possible that the spirit of Christ could come into our hearts?
How is it possible that the spirit of CHRIST could reside in someone? If what
the Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could Paul make this statement if
Christ was a spirit person residing in heaven?
Spirit does not mean a person. According to Thayer's, it can mean "the
disposition or influence which fills and governs the soul of any one." With
that said, when we have Christ's spirit, we have his disposition, as we are in
harmony with him.
67) In Jn
8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of
seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of
years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham "saw it and
rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness after death?
It was not that he literally saw it happen, but he was aware of it and knew it
was to happen.
11:13 In faith all these died, although they did not get the [fulfillment of
the] promises, but they saw them afar off and welcomed them and publicly
declared that they were strangers and temporary residents in the land.
We see he
"saw them afar off", knowing that it was for certain to be, not literally seeing
it happen, for if they saw it actually having taken place they would have had
the fulfillment of the promises.
68) In Jn
6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat "of this bread" in order to "live
forever", and that "the bread that I give IS my flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says
"... Unless you eat the flesh of the son of man and drink his blood, you have
no life in yourselves." In Jn 6:54-55, Jesus says, "He that feeds on my flesh
and drinks my blood has everlasting life..." and "... for myflesh is true food
and my blood is true drink." Do you partake of the flesh of Christ , as Jesus
commanded, in order to have life in yourself and in order to live forever?
But did Jesus not also say specifically who and what this was for?
"However, YOU are the ones that have stuck with me in my trials; 29 and I make a
covenant with YOU, just as my Father has made a covenant with me, for a
kingdom, 30 that YOU may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom, and sit on
thrones to judge the twelve tribes of Israel.
are not of these ones and take of it anyway have great guilt towards God.
Corinthians 11:27 Consequently whoever eats the loaf or drinks the cup of the
Lord unworthily will be guilty respecting the body and the blood of the Lord.
true Christian would agree that we should follow the commands of God. In Mk 9:7,
God the Father commands us to listen to Jesus. Do you follow this command and
listen to Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your personal sins (1Jn 2:2, 1Pet
2:24). Jesus tells us to go directly to him (Mt 11:28-30), and the Father
commanded us to listen to Jesus. Why? Because JESUS gives us everlasting life
(Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our house and be with us and give us
the right to sit on his throne (Rev 3:20- 21). Do you pray to Jesus as Paul and
the early Christians did (1Cor 1:2)? Do you partake of the flesh of Christ as
Jesus commanded (Jn 6:51)? If not, then are you following the command of the
Father who said "Listen to him"?
We certainly do call on Jesus' name, but we do not pray to him for God is the
one we pray to, but Jesus mediates between us and him (1 Timothy 2:5). As we
discussed in the previous question, those who are not of the group with will
rule are nworthy and are thus guitly. And with that said, we are following the
commandments closely and in detail.