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Scriptural Truths

Is Jesus our Savior if he is not God?

2 Peter 1:20 For YOU know this first, that no prophecy of Scripture springs from any private interpretation.

1)If the organization did not actually prophecy the end in 1925 and 1975, then how come so many Witnesses left the  faith immediately afterwards? ("They lost roughly three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses after 1975, when the end didn't come as they had implied over and over again," said Jim Penton,  an ex-Witness who writes entries on Jehovah's Witnesses for the Encyclopedia Americana.)

Reply:  It is very apparent that the WT never made a single prophecy.  Rather, they misunderstood scriptural dating  and Bible chronology.  It came down to simply misunderstanding the scriptures.  Take note that the WT never claimed divine inspiration, from the November, 1915 Watchtower:

"The fact that our expectations respecting the "change" of the Church in 1914 were not realized does not signify that the prophecies failed. Our readers should know that we never prophesied anything. We merely gave our opinions respecting prophecies and gave the reader the reasons for those opinions, showing the chapter and verse. Nothing in the Bible declared that the Church would be glorified by the fall of 1914. The author did express it as his opinion that the Church would be glorified by that time, and gave his reasons for so thinking. Now that the date has passed and the Church is not glorified, the author is not disappointed. All the while he wished the Lord's will to be done and none other."

Rather, their chronology was entirely Bible based.  Notice what Russell wrote in the August, 1904 Watchtower:

"The harmony of the prophetic periods is one of the strongest proofs of the correctness of our Bible chronology. They fit together like the cog-wheels of a perfect machine. To change the chronology even one year would destroy all this harmony,--so accurately are the various proofs drawn together in the parallels between the Jewish and Gospel ages. It would affect the ending of the Jubilee Cycles, the 1335 days, the 2300 days and the Times of the Gentiles, throwing out of gear all the wonderful harmonies of these in the 'Parallel Dispensations.'"

Why did ones thus leave the Watchtower?  The answer is quite simple.  Certain ones had no true desire to follow God through their lives, but anticipating that the end might be near, they came to God in hope of salvation.  In seeing that the end had not yet arrived, they simply fell away.

2)If the Watchtower organization rejects others calling them "inspired" yet the Watchtower organization does call  themselves "God's Spirit-directed Prophet" what is the difference? Is there such a thing as an "uninspired prophet"?

Reply:  Yes, there is such thing as an uninspired prophet.  Notice that whenever the Watchtower refers to themselves as a prophet, they do so in quotes as "prophet," indicating themselves to be a not an inspired prophet, but a quasi-prophet.  Consider a dictionary definition of a prophet:

1) A person who speaks by divine inspiration or as the interpreter through whom the will of a god is expressed.
2) A person gifted with profound moral insight and exceptional powers of expression.
3) A predictor; a soothsayer.
4) The chief spokesperson of a movement or cause.

As "the chief spokesperson for [God's] movement" the society is certainly a prophet, but they are not inspired.  The  Proclaimers book, p708:

Those who make up the one true Christian organization today do not have angelic revelations or divine inspiration.  But they do have the inspired Holy Scriptures, which contain revelations of God's thinking and will. As an  organization and individually, they must accept the Bible as divine truth, study it carefully, and let it work in  them. "

Also worth noting, with regards 1914, C.T. Russell wrote several years prior:

Chronology (time prophecies in  general) was evidently not intended to give God's people accurate chronological information all the way down the  path of the centuries. Evidently it is intended more to serve as an alarm clock to awaken and energize the Lord's  people at the proper time. . . . But let us suppose, for instance, that October, 1914, should pass and that no  serious fall of Gentile power would occur. What would this prove or disprove? It would not disprove any feature of  the Divine Plan of the Ages. The ransom-price finished at Calvary would still stand the guarantee of the ultimate  fulfillment of the great Divine Program for human restitution. The 'high calling' of the Church to suffer with the  Redeemer and to be glorified with him as his members or as his Bride would still be the same. . . . The only thing  [a]ffected by the chronology would be the time for the accomplishment of these glorious hopes for the Church and for  the world. . . . And if that date pass it would merely prove that our chronology, our 'alarm clock,' went off a  little before the time. Would we consider it a great calamity if our alarm clock awakened us a few moments earlier  in the morning of some great day full of joy and pleasure? Surely not!"

3) Has the Society ever taught anything Scripturally incorrect?

Reply: It depends on what you mean by scripturally incorrect.  If you mean, did they teach something that was completely  without scriptural basis, the answer would be no.  However, if you mean did they teach anything based on  misunderstanding the scriptures, they certainly have.

4) Might the Society be teaching anything Scripturally incorrect now?

Reply: It is certainly possible, but through careful study of the scriptures it is clearly shown that what the Society  teaches is closer to the purest truth than anything taught by any other religion.  As time progresses, the  understanding increases. 

Proverbs 4:18 But the path of the righteous ones is like the bright light that is getting lighter and lighter until  the day is firmly established.

So-called "Christianity" simply cannot be correct, as they all have different beliefs.  There are differing views on many subjects, such as the rapture and others.  So certainly, as a whole there can be no doubt "Chirstianity" is wrong.

5) Since the Organization has received "new light" regarding the 1914 generation, and completely changed their view  on this, does this mean that all the former Jehovah's witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the same  view the organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted into fellowship again? Were these Ex-Jw's in  fact disfellowshipped for truth and knew things that the governing body did not?

Reply: No JW is ever disfellowshipped for simply not agreeing with something. Rather, people are disfellowshipped for trying to cause divisions in the congregation. 

6) Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with other Jehovah's Witnesses opinions that differ from orthodox Watch Tower doctrine?

Reply: There is nothing wrong with raising questions.  If a person does not understand something, they should ask  questions.  However, preaching their own doctrine and causing divisions is not allowed.  It all depends on ones motives and methods.

7) Can individuals read & understand the Bible alone, or do they need an organization and it's publications to do so?

Reply: 2 Peter 1:20 For YOU know this first, that no prophecy of Scripture springs from any private interpretation.

Based on that scripture alone, we should know that no single person can ever grasp the entire Bible.  It is only by God's spirit direction that any can learn the truth.  This is exactly why so many have been misled.

We take note that even in Biblical times people required direction.  That is why much of the Christian Scriptures were written.  They were letters to the congregation that provided teaching and correction.  If they required teachers then, we also require them today.

8) How do you know that there were any vacancies, if any, in the 144,000 class if Jesus offered this to first century Christians? How can the organization know the exact number of vacancies today without any records from the first century?

Reply: By the simple fact that ones today have found themselves annointed.  It is not simply that one just wants to  be and thinks they are, but they KNOW they are. 

The organization does not claim to know the number of vacancies, nor have they ever attempted such.

8) Why are you called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" and not "Christians"? Since Jehovah's Witnesses appeal to Isa 43:12;  44:8 for scriptural support that they should be called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" then what was the "new name"  prophesied in Isa 62:2? Can't be "Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already used it 20 chapters earlier. Could the new  name be "Christian" after our savior "Christ"?

Reply: What was one of Jesus' primary goals on earth?  Well he answered that.

John 17:6 "I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world. They were yours, and you gave  them to me, and they have observed your word.

Thus, if Jesus made his Father's name known and we are to immitate Jesus, we should do the same.  After Christ, the first century followers of him were Christian's, or according to the history of the Jewish Tulmud, they were called Messiahites.  After time though, Christianity became corrupt and different denominations of it were formed.  Thus, we today take on Jehovah's Witnesses as a name to seperate ourselves from false Christianity. 

9) Why would the name God gave to His people not be "Christians" since Acts 11:26 says, "The disciples were first  called Christians in Antioch"? Why is the name "Jehovah's Witness" found nowhere in the New Testament, if that is  God's divine name for His people under the new covenant? Why would God wait almost 2000 years to suddenly start  using the name "Jehovah's Witness". Does this mean that first century Christians were not know as Jehovah's  Witnesses"?

Reply: Jehovah's Witnesses is a name used to distinguish from false Christianity.  In the first century such a  distinction was not required and they could simply be called Christians.   Today this is no longer the case.

10) If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never used in the entire Greek New Testament? If men edited  out the name of God, "YHWH" when they copied the New Testament, as only the Watchtower organization claims, then how  can we have any confidence in any of the New Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the Watchtower  organization as unreliable?

Reply: Actually it is.

Revelation 19:4  And the twenty-four elders and the four living creatures fell down and did homage to God who sits  upon the throne, saying, Amen, Hallelujah.

Hallelujah literally means "Praise Jah."  Jah is a shortened version of Jehovah. 

As for possible editing of the NT.  The Greek mansucripts vary greatly, and so it can be difficult at times to determine what the originals said.  Because of this we must rely on the Hebrew scriptures for rechecking the NT scriptures.

11) If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, "There is salvation in no one else; for  their is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved"?  Would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH"?

Reply: You forget that we were given to Jesus by God.  With that said, he is our owners (Lord) and so it is through him we  are saved.

John 17:6  I have manifested thy name to the men whom thou gavest me out of the world. They were thine, and thou  gavest them me, and they have kept thy word.

With all things having been given to Jesus, it is he who has the right to judge. 

John 3:35 The Father loves the Son and has given all things into his hand. 36 He that exercises faith in the Son has everlasting life; he that disobeys the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God remains upon him.


So, by God giving us over to Jesus, it then becomes by that one that we are saved.

12) What is the correct spelling of God's proper name "Yahweh" or "Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that  "Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell is "Jehovah"? If the name of God is so important, then should you not  only pronounce it correctly, but spell it correctly too? Is not spelling more important than pronunciation?

Reply: Actually, neither is correct.  But Jehovah is a translation of it.  It is the same for Jesus.  We all call him  Jesus, but his name is Y'shua.  If you wanted to get something closer to the Hebrew, you might make it Yud hey va hey.

13) Since the Jehovah's Witness organization currently rejects most of the teachings of its founder Charles Taze  Russell (who was president of the organization from 1879-1916), and since they also reject "Judge" Joseph Franklin  Rutherford, who succeeded Russell as president from 1916 - 1942, how can we be sure that in 25 more years, Jehovah's  Witnesses won't also reject the current president, Milton G. Henschel (1992 - present), as they did Russell and  Rutherford?

Reply:  To say we reject their teachings is an entirely false statement, for we do no such thing.  Rather, we  understand points better today than we did back then.  Certainly, we do not believe everything as they did, but the  primary doctrine remains the same or at least similar.

14) What kind of confidence can anyone have in an organization that rejected its founder and first two presidents  for the first 63 years of its existence? This represents about 53% of the time they have existed! Since the Watchtower organization claims "apostolic succession" who was it that "passed the torch of God's Spirit"  to C. T. Russel when he founded the organization? What was the name of this individual?

Reply: These are false statements.

15) In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" () is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship"  (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated  as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see  Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11,  11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this  inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the verses above  referring to Christ read?

Reply: Well you apparently lack understanding of the Greek language.  Let us consider the definition of PROSKUNEO  from Thayer's:

1) to kiss the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence
2) among the Orientals, especially the Persians, to fall upon the knees and touch the ground with the forehead as an  expression of profound reverence
3) in the NT by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect  or to make supplication
3a) used of homage shown to men and beings of superior rank
3a1) to the Jewish high priests
3a2) to God
3a3) to Christ
3a4) to heavenly beings
3a5) to demons

With that said, the NWT is not the only translation that uses CONTEXT to define the meaning.

(Darby) Matthew 14:33  But those in the ship came and did homage to him, saying, Truly thou art God's Son.

(Darby) Revelation 7:11  And all the angels stood around the throne, and the elders, and the four living creatures,  and fell before the throne upon their faces, and worshipped God,

We have discussed this topid further in this article:

16) The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" ( Gr - lord) as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt  3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word  "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios  (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?

Reply:  It is context.  Certain OT quotes are quoted about Jehovah in the NT.  In those cases it is translated as  Jehovah. In cases where it is not about Jehovah, it is translated as Lord. With that said, this is not only done  with Jehovah.  For example, there are things in the OT that are written about sinful humans and are later applied to  Jesus.  Does this make Jesus a sinful human?  Certainly not. Neither do quotes about Jehovah directed towards Jesus  make him Jehovah. 

17) To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18- 19? See Jn 2:21.

Reply: His body.

18) If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, why does he directly speak and refer to himself as "I" and  "me" in Acts 13:2?

Reply: Because it was holy spirit speaking THROUGH a person.  The scriptures make it clear that holy spirit speaks THROUGH  people. 

Acts 1:16 "Men, brothers, it was necessary for the scripture to be fulfilled, which the holy spirit spoke beforehand by David's mouth about Judas, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus,

Acts 28: 25 So, because they were at disagreement with one another, they began to depart, while Paul made this one  comment: "The holy spirit aptly spoke through Isaiah the prophet to YOUR forefathers,

2 Peter 1:21 For prophecy was at no time brought by man's will, but men spoke from God as they were borne along by  holy spirit.

19) The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" () as "I am" every time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19,  15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". What is the reason for the inconsistency in  this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in  which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read?

Reply: The past tense verb is still active in John 8:58, making it a Present of Past Action.  It is a different Greek  construction than the other cases.  This topic has been addressed at

20) In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of himself, " I am the Alpha and the Omega,  the first and the last, the beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who "became dead, but, look! I am  living forever and ever", refers to himself as the first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am  the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end ...". God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last" in  Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be since by definition of these words there can only be one first and one last?

Reply: Actually, Jesus does not say this.  We know this because the speaker changes in verse 16 where he says "I, Jesus..."  (Compare the speaker change in Revelation 1:9).  As for the one coming quickly, he certainly is but as is Jehovah,  for he is Jehovah's "arm" that is coming with him.

Isaiah 40: 10 Look! The Sovereign Lord Jehovah himself will come even as a strong one, and his arm will be ruling  for him. Look! His reward is with him, and the wage he pays is before him.

We notice in verse 7 that an angel also says he is coming quickly.  This topic really has already been addressed here:

21) Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa 44:24, God says that he "by myself" created the heavens  and the earth and asks the question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth were created. How can this be  since if Jesus was created by God, then he would have been with God when everything else was created?

Reply: Actually it doesn't say Jesus created anything, for he did not.  Rather, it uses the Greek preposition DIA which  means THROUGH, showing Jesus as an intermediate agent in GOD's creation.

In Isaiah we also note that God says he himself is the only Savior (Isaiah 43:11), yet he raised up many saviors in the Hebrew scriptures to carry out salvation from him (Judges 3:15; Isaiah 19:20). 

22) Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that "... All [other] things have been created through him and FOR HIM".  If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for himself? Isa  43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN glory...".

Reply: Again, Jesus (Michael) did not create a single thing.  These things were created "through" not "by" him.  Any  translation that uses the word "by" is an inaccurate translation.  Jesus is the firstborn, he was created before  everything else.  So he is not just any angel, but he is greater than all of them.

23) The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation  is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8).

Reply: It says the 12 tribes of Israel.  But this is not the literal 12 tribes of Israel, for both Levi and Joseph did not belong to the 12 tribes.  Rather, this is the "Israel of God" (Gal 6:16)

24)If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the soul in Mt 10:28?

Reply: The soul is not the body.  The soul is the person.  The person Adam became "a living soul" when he recieved "the breath of life." (Genesis 2:7) 

25) The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god". How can the Word (Jesus)  be "a god" if God says in Deut 32:39, "See now that I-I am he, and there are NO gods together WITH me ..."?

Reply: You have not considered context.  Jehovah is showing that there are not these idol gods.  Rather, angels are called  gods (Psalms 8:5) as are humans (Psalms 82:1,6) and others.

26) Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6 ("For there has been a child born to us, there has been a  son given to us ... And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God ..."). Jehovah is referred to as  "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be if there is only one God (1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10, 44:6)?

Reply: Well we have already established that others are called gods.  With that said, humans are also called 'el Gibborw  (Mighty God) at Ezekiel 32:21 (the original Hebrew must be referenced to see this).

27) If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, why does Jn 20:25 say  "...Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS ...", indicating that there was more than one nail used for his  hands?

Reply: Actually, scholars suggest that up to 14 nails were used.  Consider what Vine's Dictionary of New Testiment Words  says of the Cross:

"<A-1,Noun,4716,stauros> denotes, primarily, "an upright pale or stake." On such malefactors were nailed for  execution. Both the noun and the verb stauroo, "to fasten to a stake or pale," are originally to be distinguished  from the ecclesiastical form of a two beamed "cross." The shape of the latter had its origin in ancient Chaldea, and  was used as the symbol of the god Tammuz (being in the shape of the mystic Tau, the initial of his name) in that  country and in adjacent lands, including Egypt. By the middle of the 3rd cent. A.D. the churches had either departed  from, or had travestied, certain doctrines of the Christian faith. In order to increase the prestige of the apostate  ecclesiastical system pagans were received into the churches apart from regeneration by faith, and were permitted  largely to retain their pagan signs and symbols. Hence the Tau or T, in its most frequent form, with the cross-piece  lowered, was adopted to stand for the "cross" of Christ."

28)Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after  the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma  placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was  consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read?

Reply: Actually the Greek grammar changes slightly here.  However, for this discussion we will simply point out this fact.   Vatican Manuscript 1209, one of the oldest existing manuscripts that we have today, places the comma in the eact  same spot as the NWT.

29) The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" ( estin) as "is" in almost every instance in the New Testament (Mt  26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate this Greek word as  "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti"? If  the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say?

Reply: Context.   Bread is not literally flesh and blood is not literally wine.  To prove it, take the bread and wine and  then make yourself throw up.  Guess what, it will still only be partially digested break and wine.  It is not literally flesh and blood, but it is symbolic.

30) In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as  "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization?  If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false  assumption or a blasphemous statement?

Reply: Because Thomas did not actually call Jesus this.  First we take note that just because someone is being addressed  does not mean they are actually being called that name. 

1 Samuel 20:12  And Jonathan said to David, Jehovah, God of Israel, when I sound my father about this time  to-morrow, or the next day, and behold, there be good toward David, and I then send not to thee, and apprise thee of  it,

Is Jonathan calling David "Jehovah"?  No, but he is speaking to David when he says this.  With that said, Smart's Rule of KOINE Greek shows that there are actually two persons under consideration.  It states the following:

"In native KOINE Greek when the copulative KAI connects two substantives of personal description in regimen  and the  first substantive alone is modified by the personal pronoun in the genitive or repeated for perspicuity  two persons  or groups of persons are in view."

With this Greek rule considered, we have no choice but to accept that there are two persons being considered.    Finally, we take note that the Greek form is the nominative form (expression) and not the vocative (direct address),  showing that Thomas was not actually calling Jesus this, but making an expression.

This is further considered in this article:

31) If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then how will he be seen by "ALL the tribes of the earth" (Mt  24:30) and by "EVERY eye" (Rev 1:7) when he returns?

Reply:  What is it that causes them to be upset in Matthew?  It is the sign of him.  Why?  Because it brings  distress.  Revelation 1:7 says that he is on a cloud.  What does that show?  Consider:

Exodus 19:9 At this Jehovah said to Moses: "Look! I am coming to you in a dark cloud, in order that the people may  hear when I speak with you, and that in you also they may put faith to time indefinite." Then Moses reported the  words of the people to Jehovah.

Jehovah came on a cloud to Moses and Moses did not see him, much like they will not literally see Jesus.  Rather,  they will see his "sign" Jesus as at Matthew 24:30.

32) If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, how could he: Be referred to as "he" and "him" in Jn 16:7-8  and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness - Jn 15:26; Feel hurt - Isa 63:10; Be blasphemed against - Mk 3:29; Say things - Ezek  3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11, Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire - Gal 5:17; Be outraged - Heb 10:29; Search -1Cor  2:10; Comfort - Acts 9:31; Be loved - Rom 15:30 ; Be lied to and be God - Acts 5:3-4?

Reply: Well to address the first point, it is only "he" when grammar requires it.  Certian Greek titles are masculine and  certain are feminine.  This is why, for example, wisdom in Proverbs is refered to as "she", because CHOKMAH is  feminine.  Other times however, it should be "it".   With John 16:7 and 8, for example, Comforter is the Greek masculine noun PARAKLETOS, requiring the use of the male gender. 

When the holy spirit does something, as we showed early about it  speaking, it does so THROUGH people.  So when it is lied to, it is the person with holy spirit that is lied to, for  example.  We are seeing a personification of this, just like we see the personification of blood and water.

1Jo 5:7 For they that bear witness are three: 8 the Spirit, and the water, and the blood; and the three agree in  one.

Are blood and water persons so as to bear witness?  No they are not, yet they are still said to be such. Just as  holy spirit is.   Rather than being group with persons, holy spirit is group amoung "things", truly showing what it  is.

2 Corinthians 6:6 by purity, by knowledge, by long-suffering, by kindness, by holy spirit, by love free from  hypocrisy,

33) What is the meaning of Rev 14:9-11, which says, "... If anyone worships the wild beast ... he shall be tormented  with fire and sulphur ... And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever ...". Where could "anyone" be  "tormented ... forever and ever"?

Reply: Well the root form of the Greek word for torment, basanismou, actually has a root form which denotes being jailed or  imprisoned (Matthew 18:34).  We must also take note that the book of Revelation is heavily symbolic, so we must take this in light of other scriptures and what these say happens to the person.  For example, this:

Matthew 10:28  Don't be afraid of those who kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul. Rather, fear him who is able to destroy both soul and body in Gehinnom.

Understanding this, we know that the body and soul of the wicked are DESTROYED.  Notice this scripture from the BBE:

2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slow in keeping his word, as he seems to some, but he is waiting in mercy for you, not desiring the destruction of any, but that all may be turned from their evil ways.

34) Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one  thing came into existence". How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence through  him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself.

Reply: You must understand the Greek word for all, PANTA.  The use of this word in no way excludes Jesus from the group of  creation.  Reference this article:

35) If the spirit of a man has no existence apart from the body, why does Stephen just before his death in Acts  7:59, pray to Jesus to "receive my spirit"? How could Jesus receive Stephen's spirit if a man's spirit ceases to  exist when the body dies?

Reply: The spirit does exist from the body, but the spirit is nothing more than the "breath of life."  We all share one  spirit, even animals.  One force that sustains us all. 

Ecclesiastes  3:19 For there is an eventuality as respects the sons of mankind and an eventuality as respects the  beast, and they have the same eventuality. As the one dies, so the other dies; and they all have but one spirit, so  that there is no superiority of the man over the beast, for everything is vanity. 20 All are going to one place.  They have all come to be from the dust, and they are all returning to the dust. 21 Who is there knowing the spirit  of the sons of mankind, whether it is ascending upward; and the spirit of the beast, whether it is descending  downward to the earth?

36) If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17 say, "...we the living  who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall  always be with the Lord"?

Reply: This is talking about those of the 144,000 who are still alive.

37) If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another  hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?

Reply: But is it not one hope?  We all share the hope of a resurrection and everlasting life.  Where we spend that life does not change the hope. 

38) If there is no conscious awareness after death, how could the "spirits in prison" be preached to by Christ after  his death (1Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good news be "declared also to the dead" (1Pet 4:6)?

Reply: 1 Peter 4:6 is referencing  those spiritually dead (Matthew 8:28).  The spirits that Jesus preached to were fallen angels:

2 Peter 2:4  For if God did not spare sinning angels, but delivered them to chains of darkness, thrust down into Tartarus, having been kept to judgment;

39) In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other", even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek (see Gr-Engl  Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this word? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and  Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding  words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.

Reply:  Because it is grammatically correct to do so.  This topic has been addressed at

Additionally, we note it is for added clarity.  God GAVE him that name, yet he did not make it greater than his own name.  We note the NWT is not the only translation to do this:

(CEV)  Then God gave Christ the highest place and honored his name above all others.

(GNB)  For this reason God raised him to the highest place above and gave him the name that is greater than any other name.

(GW)  This is why God has given him an exceptional honor- the name honored above all other names-

40) Heb 9:28, speaking of Christ, says "... and the second time he appears..." How can Christ APPEAR a second time  if he will not have a visible return to earth?

Reply: It says he will only appear to those who look for him, his true followers. So only they would know of his presence.  If he appeared in a literal sense it would not be to just those, but to all people.

Hebrews 9:28  thus the Christ also, having been once offered to bear the sins of many, shall appear to those that look for him the second time without sin for salvation.

41) Amos 4:11 says, "'I caused an overthrow among you people, like God's overthrow of Sodom and Gomorrah. And you  came to be like a log snatched out of [the] burning; but you did not come back to me,' is the utterance of Jehovah."  How can Jehovah speaking in this verse refer to another person as God ("... like GOD'S overthrow of Sodom ...")?

Reply: This was actually Jehovah's representives, angels, who spoke as Jehovah.  This is discussed in this article:

42) In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the "great crowd" will be?

Reply: Note what this verse actually says:

Revelation 19:1  And after these things, I heard a great voice of a large multitude in Heaven, saying, Hallelujah! The salvation and the glory and the honor and the power of the Lord our God!

Having a voice of a great multitude, or crowd, does not in any way prove that this must be the same great crowd spoken of in Revelation 7.  Rather, this could be and likely is angels speaking. 

43) If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they  would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus') name instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn  15:21, and Acts 9:16)?

Reply: It is both.  It does not really matter.  You are again focusing on the name Jehovah's Witnesses, which is a tired point.

44) In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word "other" 4 times even though it is not in the original Greek (see Gr-Engl  interlinear). Why is the word "other" inserted? How would these verses read if the word "other" had not been  inserted?

Reply: Again, I will reference this article:

45) In 2Pet 1:1, the NWT inserts the word "the". Why is it inserted? How would the verse read if the word "the" was  not inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? (See Prov 30:5-6).

Reply: The word is there for clarity.  It does not change the meaning.  It is worth noting that many Greek manscripts  actually read "Lord" instead of "God" here.   Consider how the Geneva Bible renders it:

2 Peter 1:1 - Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:

46) In the sermon on the mount, when Jesus was addressing the "great crowd" (Lk 6:17), why did he tell them in Lk  6:22-23, "...your reward is great in heaven ..."?

Reply: Because he was addressing a great crowd of people.  You are taking the use of the term "great crowd" in an  absurdly fixed way.  I could go to a concert and say there was a "great crowd", but in that group there could be  Satan worshippers.  That does not mean they are the same "great crowd" that will live on earth.

47) In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been given the name which means "With Us Is God"?

Reply: And Jehu means "Jehovah is He", but does that does not mean Jehu is Jehovah.  Rather, it is just a name.

48) In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be "happy" and find "rest" if there is no conscious awareness after death?

Reply:  This is a classic Trinitarian case of ripping something out of context.  This is what the verse actually says:

Revelation 14:13  And I heard a voice out of Heaven saying to me, Write: Blessed are the dead, the ones dying in the Lord from now. Yes, says the Spirit, they shall rest from their labors, and their works follow with them.

49) If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, instead of on a cross with both  hands outstretched, why does Mt 27:37 say that the sign "This is Jesus the King of the Jews" was "posted above his  HEAD" instead of being posted above his hands? How could it have been posted above his head if his arms were  stretched out over his head?

Reply:  This is quite a streach in that it was over his head.  As general speach, one says something is over a persons head when it is higher than the one.

50) In Lk 4:12, the NWT translates "kyrios" ( Gr-lord) as "Jehovah", which makes the verse read "... 'You shall not  put Jehovah your God to the test.'" See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why is kyrios translated as "Jehovah" in this verse?  Was the devil, in Lk 4:9-11, putting Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the test?

Reply: Because it was God, not Jesus, that was truly being tested in that verse. 

Luke 4:10 for it is written, 'He will give his angels a charge concerning you, to preserve you,'

He was testing Jehovah to see if he would really send his angels to preserve Jesus.  He said not to test Jehovah,  for he knew that his Father would send the angels.

51) The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it be then, that the Bible  repeatedly says that Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20, Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?

Reply: Because Jehovah God is our Savior THROUGH Jesus, much like he was through many in the OT.

Judges 3:9 And the sons of Israel began to call to Jehovah for aid. Then Jehovah raised a savior up for the sons of  Israel that he might save them, Oth'ni·el the son of Ke'naz, the younger brother of Ca'leb.

1 Samuel 23:5 Accordingly David went with his men to Kei'lah and fought against the Phi·lis'tines and drove off with  their livestock, but struck them down with a great slaughter; and David came to be the savior of the inhabitants of  Kei'lah.

2 Kings 13: 5 Consequently Jehovah gave Israel a savior, so that they came out from under the hand of Syria, and the  sons of Israel continued to dwell in their homes as formerly.

Isaiah 19:20 And it must prove to be for a sign and for a witness to Jehovah of armies in the land of Egypt; for  they will cry out to Jehovah because of the oppressors, and he will send them a savior, even a grand one, who will  actually deliver them.

Consider this article for further information:

52) Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol "... become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up and say to you..."  (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,] 'Is this the man'..." (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening?

Reply: It is not literal, it is symbolic and a proverb. 

Isaiah 14:4 that you must raise up this proverbial saying against the king of Babylon and say:

53) Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother ...". Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?

Reply: Was the book of Hebrews not written to the Hebrew congregation?  Was Paul not specifically addressing that group?   The answer is without question yes.  He was addressing his brothers who had this calling.  Of greater note is that  the heavenly calling does not nessecarily denote actually going to heaven.  Rather, klesis, means an invitation.   They were invited to salvation, not so certainly in heaven, but just invited to Christ.

54) Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says,  "But now they are reaching out for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven..." and, "... their God for he  has made a city ready for them." The footnote on the word "city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev  21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to  heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived after Christ died?

Reply: Context, context, context.  Hebrews 11:14 For those who say such things give evidence that they are earnestly  seeking a place of their own.

It is not speaking of these faithful ones of the OT, but it talking about a different group.  One must read the  context of verse 16 to understand it. 

55) Rev 20:10 says, "And the Devil ... the wild beast and the false prophet [already were]; and they will be  tormented day and night forever and ever."Where will the devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be "tormented  day and night forever and ever"?

Reply: As we discussed earlier, this truly denotes a confinement.  We are told that they will be hurled into the lake of  fire and this fire means the second death.  If they experiance the second death they can not literally be tormented,  but confined to that destruction. (Revelation 20:7, 14)  It is important to keep in

56) In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds in his body as proof of his  resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body  which had the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a spirit, "because a spirit does not  have flesh and bones just as you behold that I have" (Lk 24:39)?

Reply: This topic has been addressed at

57) If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before Jesus would have  been created, God would have had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without wisdom?

Reply: Actually, if Jesus was not wisdom then God did not have wisdom.  Rather, by Jesus being the PERSONIFICATION of  wisdom, God always had wisdom, but the one personified as such did not exist.

58) Rev 7:11 says that "before the throne" is in heaven where "all the angels were standing". Rev 14:2-3 says "And I  heard a sound out of heaven ... And they were singing as if a new song before the throne ...". Rev 7:9 says, "...  look, a great crowd ... standing before the throne...". Rev 7:14-15 says, "...There are the ones that come out of  the great tribulation ... That is why they are before the throne of God ...". Therefore, if "before the throne "  means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great crowd" is "before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where does that  mean that the great crowd will be?

Reply: Actually, "before the throne" does not mean in heaven.  The word for "before", enopion, literally means in sight of.   Thus, to be in sight of something does not mean one is actually there. 

59) If Jesus Christ is Michael the Archangel, how can Mt 25:31 say, "When the Son of man arrives in his glory, and  ALL the angels with him, ...". Since "all the angels" would certainly include Michael the Archangel, is it possible  that Jesus could return with himself?

Reply: Understanding the use of the word PANTA, Jesus being the archangel does not rule out all the angels being with him.   Consider this article for further details:

60) In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all living to him (God)", since they all died hundreds  of years before Jesus said this?

Reply: Were people truly dead even to Jesus?  Not at all.  Note what he says: 

Mark 5:39 and, after stepping in, he said to them: "Why are YOU causing noisy confusion and weeping? The young child  has not died, but is sleeping."

To Jesus and to God, a dead person is not truly dead but only sleeping from something to be awoken from.  Only in  the second death is one truly dead. 

61) If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of those who had been  "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out "with a loud voice, saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord ..."?

Reply: In the same way that Abel's blood cried out of course.  It was not literally alive, crying out, but it was symbolic  of his deserving vengence.  (Genesis 4:10)

62) In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people of all the nations the name of the Father and of  the Son and of the holy spirit". Why would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of anybody or anything  who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command of Jesus and baptize "in the name of the Father and of  the Son and of the holy spirit"?

Reply:  Well if the three were God, Jesus would have simply said "Baptize them in the name of God."  Yet, he did  not.  Each one has an important role and in recognizing who they are we are baptized in their name.

63) If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or come back into a person  (1Kings 17:21)?

Reply: This is of course speaking of the person dying or coming back to life.  The Bible makes it very clear that the soul  dies.   (Num. 31:19; Judg. 16:30; Ezek. 13:19)

64) The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be destroyed or depopulated. How can it be, then, that  God says in Isa 51:6, "... the earth itself will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere gnat ...", and  that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and earth will pass away...", and that John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw "... a  new heaven and a NEW earth, for the former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is no more."?

Reply: So I suspect that the scriptures that clearly say the earth will last forever are lying?

Ecclesiastes 1: 4 A generation is going, and a generation is coming; but the earth is standing even to time  indefinite.

Psalms 78:69 And he began to build his sanctuary just like the heights, Like the earth that he has founded to time  indefinite.

Psalms 104:5 He has founded the earth upon its established places; It will not be made to totter to time indefinite,  or forever.

Psalms 119: 90 Your faithfulness is for generation after generation. You have solidly fixed the earth, that it may  keep standing.

With that said, it is clear the earth will not literally be destroyed, but this is symbolic.  The Bible has spoken  of the earth melting in destruction.  Has it literally been destroyed, or was this symbolic of something else?

Psalms 46: 6 The nations became boisterous, the kingdoms tottered; He sounded with his voice, the earth proceeded to  melt.

It is clearly symbolic of God's removal of the wickedness.

65) Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after they were killed that could be thrown into Gehenna?

Reply: I suggest you read more of the scriptures.

Matthew  10:28 And do not become fearful of those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul; but rather be in fear  of him that can destroy both soul and body in Ge·hen'na.

With that said, the soul is clearly DESTROYED.

66) Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom 8:9) refer to? In Gal 4:6, how is it possible  that the spirit of Christ could come into our hearts? How is it possible that the spirit of CHRIST could reside in  someone? If what the Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could Paul make this statement if Christ was a spirit  person residing in heaven?

Reply: Spirit does not mean a person.  According to Thayer's, it can mean "the disposition or influence which fills and  governs the soul of any one."  With that said, when we have Christ's spirit, we have his disposition, as we are in  harmony with him.

67) In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it  and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham "saw it  and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness after death?

Reply: It was not that he literally saw it happen, but he was aware of it and knew it was to happen.

Hebrews 11:13 In faith all these died, although they did not get the [fulfillment of the] promises, but they saw  them afar off and welcomed them and publicly declared that they were strangers and temporary residents in the land.

We see he "saw them afar off", knowing that it was for certain to be, not literally seeing it happen, for if they  saw it actually having taken place they would have had the fulfillment of the promises.

68) In Jn 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat "of this bread" in order to "live forever", and that "the bread  that I give IS my flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says "... Unless you eat the flesh of the son of man and drink his  blood, you have no life in yourselves." In Jn 6:54-55, Jesus says, "He that feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood  has everlasting life..." and "... for myflesh is true food and my blood is true drink." Do you partake of the flesh  of Christ , as Jesus commanded, in order to have life in yourself and in order to live forever?

Reply: But did Jesus not also say specifically who and what this was for? 

Luke 22:28 "However, YOU are the ones that have stuck with me in my trials; 29 and I make a covenant with YOU, just  as my Father has made a covenant with me, for a kingdom, 30 that YOU may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom,  and sit on thrones to judge the twelve tribes of Israel.

Those who are not of these ones and take of it anyway have great guilt towards God.

1 Corinthians 11:27 Consequently whoever eats the loaf or drinks the cup of the Lord unworthily will be guilty  respecting the body and the blood of the Lord.

69) Every true Christian would agree that we should follow the commands of God. In Mk 9:7, God the Father commands  us to listen to Jesus. Do you follow this command and listen to Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your personal sins  (1Jn 2:2, 1Pet 2:24). Jesus tells us to go directly to him (Mt 11:28-30), and the Father commanded us to listen to  Jesus. Why? Because JESUS gives us everlasting life (Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our house and be with  us and give us the right to sit on his throne (Rev 3:20- 21). Do you pray to Jesus as Paul and the early Christians  did (1Cor 1:2)? Do you partake of the flesh of Christ as Jesus commanded (Jn 6:51)? If not, then are you following  the command of the Father who said "Listen to him"?

Reply: We certainly do call on Jesus' name, but we do not pray to him for God is the one we pray to, but Jesus mediates between us and him (1 Timothy 2:5).  As we discussed in the previous question, those who are not of the group with will rule are nworthy and are thus guitly.  And with that said, we are following the commandments closely and in detail.