By Nelson A. Herle, Jr.
RESPONSES TO—STATEMENTS MADE BY BibleHelp.org —IN THEIR: "REFERENCE
SECTION 2: VERSES SHOWING JESUS IS GOD" AND "REFERENCE SECTION 1: VERSES
TEACHING THE TRINITY"
Numbers in brackets [ ] refer to responses
below the quotations of the above referenced work. "TTDE" refers to the essay,
The Trinity Doctrine Examined in the Light of History and the Bible.
Unless otherwise noted, Scripture quotations are from the King James Version.
(It should be kept in mind that the capitalization of letters is the option of
the translators; the oldest and most complete Greek manuscripts Sinaiticus (!),
Vatican 1209 (B)
and Alexandrinus (A), are in all capitals (uncials). The statements in the paper
by BibleHelp.org, will be presented in their entirety, within boxes,
immediately below, and, on the following pages.
2: Verses showing Jesus is God (This section provides an in-depth
study of verses showing Jesus is God) Others viewed Jesus as God 1
Timothy 3:16 -Paul Said Jesus was God manifested in the flesh. "And without
controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the
flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the
nations, believed on in the world, received up in glory." 
 "The word
"God" is not found in the vast majority of modern translations of the Bible, nor
in the oldest manuscripts thereof. It was discovered, when the earliest
manuscripts of Scripture were found in the 19th century, that the
word "he" ($O",
phonetically, hahs) had been changed to the word "God" (Greek,
phonetically, theh.AHS) at a time long after the Bible was written. A marginal
note on this in the American Standard Version states: "The word God,
in place of He who ["He who" is in the main text of this version]
rests on no sufficient ancient evidence. Some ancient authorities [manuscripts]
read which." Also such a statement would contradict John 1:18 and 1 John
4:12: "No man hath seen God at any time." See TTDE p. 261.
"John 20:28 -Thomas
called Jesus God. "And Thomas answered, as said unto him, My Lord and My
 By Thomas saying to
Jesus: "My Lord and my God," Thomas was showing that Jesus was above him. The
"my" (literally, "of me," a genitive case setting) limits the application of
Jesus' Lordship and Godship to that which was over Thomas at that time. However,
Thomas, at that point in time, was only speaking of the relative position
between himself and the resurrected Christ. The Father is the absolute
God over the Son. (Revelation 3:12) At 2 Corinthians 4:4, Satan is called: "the
god of this world; "the of this" (a genitive case setting) limits his 'godship.'
See TTDE pp. 69, 70.
"Colossians 2:8, 9
-Paul said Jesus was the fullness of the Godhead bodily." 
2:9 does not say: "Jesus was the fullness of the Godhead bodily." as claimed. It
reads, in the KJV: "For in Him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead
bodily." It is showing that all the godly qualities are found in the Son of God.
Why are they found in him? Colossians 1:19, KJV, teaches: "For it pleased
the Father that in him should all fullness dwell;" It was the decision by the
Father, Jehovah, that all these qualities should dwell in His Son. If they had
been in the Son from all eternity, there would be no need for a decision to be
made to have them dwell in the Son of God, they would have been there already.
On "decision," in the Greek, see Thayer's Greek - English Lexicon Of the New
Testament, p. 258, under "eu-dokevw,"
and TTDE pp. 79-81.
"Titus 2:13 -Paul said
Jesus was God. "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of
the great God and our savior, Jesus Christ." 
 Titus 2:13
speaks of two persons (not one, not three), one called the "Great God" and one
called "Savior," ("Saviour," British spelling)."The Great God is the Father,
Jehovah, and the Savior is His Son, Jesus Christ. Others, in addition to the
Father and the Son are called "saviors" in Scripture, note this at 2 Kings 13:5
and Nehemiah 9:27. At Judges 3:9, 15 we find the same Hebrew word rendered "saviour"
in 2 Kings and Nehemiah. However, in some versions we see that they are
rendered "deliverer"; they are applied to the men Othniel and
Ehud. Jehovah sent these men to deliver Israel from their enemies
and act as saviors. In the "Hebrew And Chaldee Dictionary" of Strong's
Exhaustive Concordance Of The Bible, we see that this word is:"3Lk
yâsha‘, yaw-shah´…deliver (-er)…save (-iour)"—word number 3467. Why some
translators chose to use different English words to render the same Hebrew word,
is a question to be investigated. (The New World Translation is
consistent in translating the word as "savior(s)." These saviors were not God.
It should be noted that the holy spirit is never called savior is the Bible.
"Luke 8:39 -After Jesus
healed a demon possessed man, Jesus said: "Return to thine house, land show
what great thing God hath done unto thee. And he went on his way
and published throughout the whole city what great things Jesus had done
unto him." 
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 Here, Jesus gives the
glory to his Father. The Father had done this healing through Jesus, His servant
on earth. At Matthew 12:22-28 we read: "Then was brought unto Him one possessed
with a devil, blind, and dumb: and He healed him, insomuch that the blind and
dumb both spake and saw. And all the people were amazed, and said, "Is not this
the son of David?" But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, "This
fellow doth not cast out devils, but by Beelzebub the prince of the devils."
And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, "Every kingdom divided
against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against
itself shall not stand: And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against
himself; how shall then his kingdom stand? And if I by Beelzebub cast out
devils, by whom do your children cast them out? therefore they shall be
your judges. But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of
God is come unto you." (Jesus and the "children" (followers) of the Pharisees
cast out demons by the power of the holy spirit of God, not in their own power.
Neither the Pharisees' "children" nor Jesus were God!) Jesus also taught these
truths at John 5:25-30, in the New American Standard Version: "Truly,
truly, I say to you, an hour is coming and now is, when the dead shall hear the
voice of the Son of God; and those who hear shall live. "For just as the Father
has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself;
and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because His is the Son of
Man [margin, "Or, a son of man"] "Do not marvel at this; for an hour is
coming, in which all who are in the tombs shall hear His voice, and shall come
forth; those who did the good deeds, to a resurrection of life, those who
committed the evil deeds to a resurrection of judgment. "I can do nothing
on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do
not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me." (The authority to judge
and raise the dead, was given to the Son by the Source of all good power, the
Father, Jehovah, and was exercised through the Son.) John 11:41, 42, shows the
dependence of Christ on the Father: "Then they took away the stone from the
place where the dead was laid. And Jesus lifted up His eyes, and
said, "Father, I thank Thee that Thou hast heard Me. And I knew that Thou
hearest Me always: but because of the people which stand by I said it,
that they may believe that Thou hast sent Me." (Jesus prayed to the Father for
the power to raise Lazarus.) Acts 2:22 reaffirms this thought: "Ye men of
Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a Man approved of God among you by
miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by Him in the midst of you, as ye
yourselves also know:" (Once again the thought, "which God did by Him.")
"Rom. 14:10b-12 -Paul
uses the words Jesus and God interchangeably. "For we shall all stand before
the judgment Seat of Christ. For it is written, As I live,
saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess
to God. So, then, "every one of us shall give account of himself to
 Even if,
this reading of Romans 14:10b-12 were the correct one; the meaning can be
explained as follows. As we have seen in the above, the authority to judge was
given to the Son by the Father, and as Jesus said, his judgment is just,
because, he seeks to do the will of Him who sent him. Therefore, it is correct
to say, that when one is before the judgment seat of Christ, he is also giving
an account to God through the judge whom God appointed. Just as in the case of a
trial in which an appointed (or elected) judge pronounces a verdict which is
based on the law; the judge and/or the jury, act by the authority of the law. It
can therefore be said that the law has found the person(s), or other entities,
on trial, innocent or guilty. We have a parallel expression at Hebrews 7:28,
New American Standard Version: "For the Law appoints men as high priests who
are weak, by the word of the oath, which came after the Law, appoints a
Son, made perfect forever." The Law of Moses was given by God; by that Law, men
act according to the will of God. It can thus be said that those who are being
governed by the Law are being governed by God, as long as the Law is being
administered by faithful judges; they are His agents. It is written at Exodus
21:6: "Then his master shall bring him unto the judges (Hebrew
(phonetically, hah el.o.HEEM, literally, "the gods"); he shall also bring him to
the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with
an awl; and he
shall serve him for ever."
"The judges" are also referred to, in the Hebrew, as 'the gods' at Exodus 22:8,
9. In verse 28 of this chapter we find: "Thou shalt not revile the gods [/*%-!%],
nor curse the ruler of thy People." "The gods" here, refer to the judges of
Israel. Certainly, Jehovah was not instructing the people to give honor to other
gods, since they were to worship, in the highest sense of the word, only Jehovah
and no other gods. At Psalm 82:6, 7, the Most High Jehovah, says to these gods
(the judges): "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are
children of the most High. Be ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the
princes." The Companion Bible comments on these passages, in a marginal
note to Psalm 82:6, 7: "gods. Elohim: used of earthly judges as representing
Him. Cp. Ex. 21. 6; 22.8, 9, 28 (quoted in
Acts 23.5). Hence, Moses is so spoken of (Ex. 7. 10)." When the ones
to be judged were before the judges of Israel, it was as if they were
standing before the One whom they represented, Jehovah Himself. So it with the
Son of God. The Companion Bible makes this statement on Romans 14:10 in
reference to "before the judgment seat of Christ": "The texts read "God." So we
find "the judgement seat of God" in many translations based
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on older manuscripts than
those available at the time of the making of the King James Version. See
translations/versions: Darby; English Revised Version; The
Emphasized Bible, J.B. Rotherham; American Standard Version;
Moffatt; An American Translation, Smith and Goodspeed; Revised
Standard Version; New American Standard Version; Charles B. Williams;
William F. Beck; Westcott and Hort Greek text; United Bible Societies,
Greek text, third edition, 1975; The New Jerusalem Bible; etc.
"Luke 8:39 -After Jesus
healed as demon possessed man, Jesus said: "Return to thine house, and show
what great things God hath done unto thee. And he went on his way and
published throughout the whole city what great things Jesus had done unto
 Jesus did this
and other healings, as shown in number "" by the authority and power given to
him by his Father.
"Phil. 2:5b, 6 -Paul
said Jesus was God. "…Jesus, who being in the form of God, thought it not
robbery to equal with God." 
 First, let it
be observed, that Paul does not call Jesus God at this passage of Scripture.
Philippians 2:5, 6, read: "Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ
Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with
God:" If this were the correct translation, and we are to 'let this mind be in
us as it was in the Son,' then, it would be proper for us to think that it is
not robbery for us to be equal to God! More accurate translations of these
verses read: "The attitude you should have is the one that Christ Jesus had: He
always had the nature of God, but he did not think that by force he should try
to become equal with God."—Good News Bible-Today's English Version. "Have
this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was
in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,"—English
Standard Version. "Let your bearing towards one another arise out of our
life in Christ Jesus. For the divine nature was his from the first; yet he did
not think to snatch at equality with God,"—The New English Bible. "Take
to heart among yourselves what you find in Christ Jesus: 'He was in the form of
God; yet he laid no claim to equality with God,"—The Revised English Bible.
The Greek word from which "grasped" and "snatch at" are taken is
(phonetically, har.pahg.MAHN). It is the noun
form of the verb
aJrpaVzw (phonetically, har.PAH.zoh).
is used 14 times in the Christian Greek
Scriptures. It always means 'an attempt to bring about some type of change.'
This attempt, the Son of God never even had in mind, in order to try to change
his position in life to become equal to his God and Father. (Romans 15:6;
Revelation 3:12) It never means to hold on to something which one already has.
Concerning this proper attitude of the Son, which Christians must have, we read
in The Interpreter's Bible: "When he [Paul] says that Christ existed in
the form of God, he implies that Christ was of the same nature as God, [yes, a
holy spirit] that the principle of his being was essentially divine. Since he
had this affinity with God, he might have aspired to "equality" with him; he
might have claimed an equal share in all the powers which God exercises and in
all the honors which are rendered to him by his creatures. Standing so near to
God, he might have resented his inferior place and thrown of his obedience. (d)
Yet he never attempted the robbery which might have raised him higher…But in
Greek, as in English, the word "robbery" involved the idea of violent seizure,
and what Christ resisted was not merely the prize but the means of obtaining it.
He refused to seize for his own the glory which belongs to God…Paul…set the
obedience or Christ over against that old conception of a heavenly being [Satan]
who had sought by violence to make himself equal to God." On the word
The Expositor's Greek Testament reports: "We cannot find any passage
or any of its derivatives has the sense of
'holding in possession', 'retaining'. It seems invariably to mean 'seize,'
'snatch violently'. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense
'grasp at' into one which is totally different, 'hold fast'. See TTDE pp. 72-79.
"John 10:33 -The Jews
felt Jesus was claiming to be God. "The Jews answered him, saying, For a good
work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy: and because that thou, being a man,
makest [T]hyself God." 
"John 5:18 -The Jews
felt Jesus was making himself equal with God. "Therefore the Jews sought the
more to kill him, because he not only had broken the Sabbath, but said also
that God was his Father, making himself equal with God." 
The Jews felt that Jesus was making himself equal to God. But, since
when are Christians to be taught the truth
10] about the
Son of God from what his opposers felt? What the Jews felt
is not the important factor; what Jesus meant is
the important factor. Jesus showed that those Jews, who accused him of blasphemy
were wrong. He quoted Psalms 82:6 in John 10:34, 35 to them, in this manner:
"Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, 'I said,
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gods?' If he [Jehovah God] called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and
the scripture cannot be broken; say ye of Him, Whom the Father hath sanctified,
and sent into the world, 'Thou blasphemest; because I said, 'I am the Son of
God?" Jesus told them that he only claimed to the Son of God. He showed them
that they were wrong in accusing him of claiming to be God. He also taught them
that if God called those unfaithful judges "gods," that calling men such was not
wrong, since God (or, in some translations, "a god," The New English Bible;
New World Translation) Himself had called men "gods." However, he
reminded them that he had not gone that far; he had only called himself the Son
of God. On John 5:18: Once again we are faced with 'what the Jews felt.' Once
more, they were wrong. They (according to the insight of John, inspired by holy
spirit) accused Jesus of 'breaking the Sabbath.' He had not broken the Sabbath.
If, he had done so, he would be a sinner; he was not a sinner! The Jews'
thought, reported by John, was incorrect on the point of the supposed breaking
the Sabbath and on the point of Jesus' supposed claim to be God. Jesus defended
himself, teaching them that he was not claiming to be God, with the words of
verses 19, 20 in the same chapter: "Then answered Jesus and said unto them,
"Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of Himself, but what He
seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son
likewise. For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth Him all things that Himself
doeth: and He will shew Him greater works than these, that ye may marvel." With
these words, Jesus explained that he learned to do what he did, by being shown
what and how to do them by the Father. These are not the words of one claiming
to be God. God does not need to learn, or be shown by any one what and how to
accomplish His mighty works!
"Jesus claimed to be
God John 10:30 -Jesus said He was part of God. He said, "I and my Father
are one." 
 In saying
that: "I and the Father are one." Jesus was not claiming to "part of God." He
was claiming to be united in will and spirit with his Father. At John 17:20-23,
Jesus prayed to the "only true God," his Father, for the apostles and all who
would believe through the apostles: "That they may be one; as Thou, Father, art
in Me, and I in Thee, that they also may one in Us:" Here, as well as at John
10:30, Jesus is quoted as using the word
(en, with rough breathing mark (
(epsilon, pronounced hen, "one"). This word has to do with being: "united most
closely (in will, spirit), Jn x . 30; xvii . 21-23;" (Thayer's
Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, p. 186) not being on the same
level in rank with another. Also, this verse speaks of only two individuals not
three. See TTDE pp. 66-67.
"Exodus 3:14 -God
identifies Himself to Moses by calling himself "I AM." Twice Jesus refers to
Himself as the "I AM." Those around him knew exactly what he was saying and
they were greatly offended. "Jesus said unto them, Verily[,] verily, I say
[unto] you, before Abraham was, I am. Then they took up stones
to cast at him …" (John 8:58, 59a) "Whom seek ye? They answered him, Jesus of
Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them I am he. As soon as he said unto
them, I am he, they went backward and fell to the ground." (John
18:4b, 5, 6) [Note: In the Bible, the word "he" is in italic. Whenever a word
was not in the original Greek or Hebrew, but was put in for clarity, the King
James translators put the word in italic. This was done so there would be no
misunderstanding about what was and was not part of the original text[.]"
 Jesus never
referred to himself as someone called "I AM" (Greek,
ego eimi, phonetically, eh.GOH ay.MEE, ay in "hay")
as if this were a title of God as claimed
by the BibleHelp.org. He did not say anything like: 'I am the I am;' nor:
'I was the I am.' At John 8:58 Jesus said in the King James Version:
"Before Abraham was, I am." That statement means: 'Before Abraham was, I
existed.' This was in response to the question put to him in verse 57: "Thou art
not yet fifty years old, and hast Thou seen Abraham?" Abraham had lived some
1,900 years before this confrontation with the Jews took place. Jesus' reply was
in answer to a question about age, not identity. K.L. McKay explained the
reaction of the crowd saying:
The verb 'to be' is
used…in what is presumably its basic meaning of 'be in existence' in John 8:58:
prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi…which wold be most naturally translated 'I
have been in existence since before Abraham was born'…if it were not for the
obsession with the simple words 'I am.' If we take the Greek words in their
natural meaning, as we surely should, the claim to have been in existence for so
long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd's violent
reaction."— "I am in John's Gospel", The Expository Times, July 1996,
Volume 17, Number 10, p. 302.
The noted Greek scholar
G.B. Winer reported on the construction found at John 8:58 and other scriptures
of the same syntax (word order and type):
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Sometimes the Present
[tense, i.e. "I am"] includes also a past tense…when the verb expressed a state
which commenced at an earlier period but still
continues - a state in its duration; as, J[oh]n xv. 27…viii.58
genevsqai ejgwÉ eijmi [before Abraham to
become I am]
(emphasis added).—A Grammar of the Idiom of
the New Testament, Luneman translation, 1893, Thayer translation, 1897, p.
267, in both translations.
Highly respected Greek
grammarians wrote concerning John 8:58:
To make sense, one must
say "Before Abraham existed, I existed" or "…I have existed"— Barclay M. Newman
and Eugene A. Nida, A Translator's Handbook on the Gospel of John, 1980.
(This demonstrates also, that Jesus was making no claim to be God. He was merely
informing that he had lived before the birth of Abraham.)
So, then, Jesus was
telling the crowd that his life had commenced sometime before Abraham's
life. That is how he could know what Abraham felt about the blessings of
the Messiah's mission on the earth, as he had described in verse 56. He had been
observing Abraham from heaven. One who showed that he a commencement of life,
could not be claiming to be God! Even in the King James Version John 8:58
has "I am" not "I AM." This had to do with preexistence, not who he was, but,
when he was.
In John 18:4-6, we learn
of the situation as it occurred the night before his death: "Jesus therefore,
knowing all things that should come upon Him, went forth, and said unto, "Whom
seek ye?" They answered Him, "Jesus of Nazareth." Jesus saith unto them, I am
He And Judas also, which betrayed Him, stood with them. As soon then as He
had said unto them, I am He," they went backward, and fell to the
ground." All Jesus was acknowledging here, was he was the one whom they were
seeking, Jesus of Nazareth. He was not acknowledging he was someone called 'I
am.' At John 9:9, the man cured from blindness, says of himself: "I am." This
did not cause those who heard him to react as if he were claiming to be God.
Why? Ego eimi is not a title of God! In Exodus 3:14 in the Greek Septuagint
Version, Jehovah is quoted as calling Himself
(O On, phonetically, hah own, "The Being,") not
ego eimi. (For more on this, and on the correct translation of John 8:58, Exodus
3:14 and the "Perfect Indefinite Tense", see TTDE pp. 56-66.
"Revelation 1:8 - 18
-Jesus said, he is the 'Almighty Lord. The following is a vision John had of
Jesus. Verses 2, 13, 17, 18 identify Jesus as the: (v 2) "… testimony of Jesus
Christ …" (v 8) "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending,
saith the Lord, who is, and who was, and who is to come, the
Almighty." (v 11) "Saying I am [A]lpha and Omega, the first and the
last…" (v 13) "And in the midst of the seven lamp stands, one like the
Son of man …" (v[v] 17b[-]18z) "Fear not; I am the first and the
last; I am he that liveth and was dead…" 
 It is believed, a
good way to explore the verses in Revelation mentioned, (with the addition of
1:1 to set the stage) is, to record them as a script, identifying the various
speakers as they give their messages. We will begin with the first verse of
chapter one from the New American Standard Version, Note: The application
of the title "Alpha and Omega" to Jesus in the King James Version at
verse 11 is not supported by some of the oldest Greek manuscripts, including the
Alexandrine, Sinaitic, and Codex Ephraemi rescriptus. It is, therefore, omitted
in many modern translations, including the New American Standard Version.
A marginal note on this in The Companion Bible reads: "The texts
[John at 1:1]
"The Revelation of Jesus
Christ, which God gave Him [emphasis added] to show His
bond-servants, the things which must shortly take place; and He sent and
communicated it by His angel to His bond-servant John," Here, God and
Jesus Christ, are shown to be two different individuals. God is identified as
someone other than Jesus Christ. Also, let it be observed that God gave this
revelation to Jesus Christ. It was a message unknown to Christ, and was a gift
from his God and Father. (1 Peter 1:3). If Christ were God, no one
would have to show him.
[John at 1:2]
"who [that is John] bore
witnesses to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus, even to all
that he [John] saw." (The "testimony of Jesus" had its source in his God, Who
gave it to the Son, as explained in verse one. Once more God and Jesus are
presented as two distinct entities, only one of which is God.)
[Jehovah God at 1:8]
"I am Alpha and Omega, the
beginning and the ending." saith the Lord, Which is to come, the Almighty." The
only One ever called the Almighty in Scripture is the Father, Jehovah God;
therefore, this is He speaking identifying Himself as the Supreme One of the
universe. (See Exodus 6:3.) The prayer to Jehovah at Psalm 83:18 is: "That
men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH Art the most high
over the earth." Yes, only the One whose name is Jehovah is the most high over
all the earth; no one shares that exalted position with Him. At Revelation
21:22, the Almighty and His Son are clearly differentiated with the words: "And
I saw no temple therein: for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are the temple
of it." The "Lord God Almighty," is the Father, Jehovah; "the Lamb" is the Son
of Jehovah, Jesus Christ.
[Christ at 1:11]
The words found in the
King James Version as if coming from the Lord Jesus Christ: "I am
Alpha and Omega, the first and the last and," are not found the vast majority of
modern translations because they are not in the ancient manuscripts. See the
American Standard Version; The Revised Standard Version; the New
American Standard Version; The New English Bible; the New
International Version; the New Living Translation; The Revised
English Bible; The New Revised Standard Version. The New King
James Version admits in a footnote to the verse: "5 NU-Text and M-Text omit
I am thorough the third and." (It identifies the "NU-Text" as:
"This text is published in the Twenty-Sixth Edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek
New Testament (N) and in the United Bible Societies' Third Edition (U)." The
"M-Text" symbol is said to mean: "points of variation in the Majority Text from
the traditional text, as also previously discussed in "The New Testament
Text.")—PREFACE, p. viii . The words in doubt cannot refer to Christ since he
had a beginning of life. At John 1:14, 18; 3:16, 18 and, 1 John 4:9, in the
King James Version, he is called "the only-begotten." To reiterate, anyone
who was begotten had a beginning of life; anyone who had a beginning of life
cannot be the uncreated God, Jehovah, nor His equal.
[Christ at 1:13]
"And in the midst of the
seven lamp stands, one like the Son of man…" Yes, this is Jesus who had spoken
to John. This does not show that he is God.
[Christ at 1:17, 18]
"And when I [John] saw
him, I fell at His feet as dead. And He laid His right hand upon me, saying unto
me, "Fear not; I am the First and the Last: I am He that liveth, and was
dead; and behold I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of
death." Jesus is the first and the last of his Father's creations. (More on
this subject when we consider Micah 5:2.) He was dead and was resurrected. God
cannot die; the Son of God did die!
"Isaiah 44:6 -In Rev[.]
1:11, Jesus says He is the first and the last. Isa. 44:6 shows that the one
who is "first and the last["] is actually God. "Thus saith the Lord, the King
of Israel, and his redeemer, the Lord [LORD,
King James Version, = "Jehovah" (%&%*)),
in the Hebrew text)] of Host[s;] I am the first, and I am the last, and
beside me there is no God." 
 Isaiah 44:6 is
connected, in some versions, with Revelation 1:11, as being equivalent
statements as asserted in the BibleHelp.org paper. Is it? We must
investigate. The claim that Jesus says he is the first and last at Revelation
1:11, as we have seen, is not substantiated by the ancient manuscripts nor is it
in harmony with other statements of Scripture. What, then, is the meaning of
Isaiah 44:6? It is this, before Jehovah there was no Almighty God, and there
will be none after Him. As it is rendered in the American Standard Version:
"Thus saith, Jehovah, the King of Israel, and his Redeemer, Jehovah of hosts; I
am the first, and I am the last; and besides me there is no God." He also says
at Isaiah 43:10: "Ye are my witnesses, saith Jehovah, and my servant whom I have
chosen; that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me
there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me."
RESPONSES TO— BibleHelp.org
"Hebrews 1:8 -God the
Father said Jesus was God. "Unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God,
is forever and ever; a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of thy
 At this verse,
Hebrews 1:8, we have quotations from Psalm 45:6 (verse 7 of the Psalm and verse
9 of Hebrews 1) which should also be considered to obtain the correct
understanding of this statement by the Psalmist and its meaning in Hebrews 1:8.)
The New Oxford Annotated Bible Revised Standard Version, comments on the
passage from the Psalms:
Ps 45: An ode
[poem] for a royal wedding. 1:
Introduction, The author identified himself as a professional writer (a ready
scribe), presumably a court poet. 2-9: He addresses the king in
This declaration was first
addressed to a human king. It could not be taken as teaching that he was the
Almighty God. The grammar of the Psalm is of the utmost importance when
considering the significance of these verses. A close study of these verses has
led scholars to the following conclusions:
When Solomon, who was
God's Son (II Sam 7:14), ruled over the Lord's kingdom (1Chron 29:23; see also
Enoch 51:3; 55:4; 61:2-3, 5; 69:26-27). That did not mean that Solomon was God.
It means that Solomon ruled over God's kingdom when he ruled over Palestine, and
he sat on God's throne when he ruled from Jerusalem. Therefore, it is just as
proper to speak of the eternity of God's throne with reference to the Son Jesus
who was to sit on it as it was to speak of God's throne when Solomon, the son,
sat on it.—George Wesley Buchanan, The Anchor Bible, To The Hebrews,
1972, p. 20.
So, Solomon was, if he
were called "God," was called such only in a representative sense just as the
judges of Israel were called "gods" in Psalm 82, as one who ruled over God's
people as the agent of the Almighty.
This quotation (the
fifth) is from Psa. 45:7f. A Hebrew nuptial ode (epithalamium) for a king
treated here as Messianic. It is not certain whether ho theos ["the God"] is
here the vocative (address with the nominative form as in John 20:28 with the
Messiah termed theos ["god"] as is possible, (John 1:18) ["the only-begotten
god" as in the ancient Greek texts] or ho theos ["the God"] is nominative
subject or predicate with estin ["is"] understood: "'God is thy throne" or "Thy
throne is God.") Either makes good sense.—A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in
the New Testament, Volume VI , p. 339.
With the above in mind,
and with a better understanding of the Hebrew and the Greek (compared to the
level of knowledge of those languages, and the number and age of Biblical
manuscripts available, in the seventeenth century, the time of the producing of
the King James Version), Biblical scholars have rendered Hebrew 1:8 as
"God is thy throne forever and ever"—The Twentieth Century New
Testament; An American Translation; Moffatt; Byington; Lubach; Improved
2) "Your throne, O Lord,
is forever and ever"—Archbishop Theofan Stylian Noli, Albanian Orthodox Church.
"O GOD.] This is a clear instance where Christ is called 'God,' but as v.
9 speaks of God as is 'God,' we cannot lay stress upon it here as proving the
supreme divinity of the Saviour, besides it may be justly rendered, 'God is thy
throne—to ages of the ages' in either case it is applicable to the mediatorial
throne only."—Robert Young, Young's Concise Critical Bible Commentary.
(Others read as in the King James Version, or, similarly.)
At this point, it is well
to consider Hebrews 1:9: "Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity;
therefore God, even Thy God hath anointed Thee with the oil of gladness above
Thy fellows." At this passage, Jesus is spoken of as having "fellows." This word
comes from the Greek
mevtoco" (phonetically, MEH.tah.kahs). In
Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, on page 429, under
"FELLOW," it is defined as: "properly an adjective, signifying sharing in,
partaking of, is translated "partners" in Luke 5:7; "partakers" in Heb. 3:1, 14;
6:4; 12:8; "fellows" in Heb.1:9, of those who share in a heavenly calling, or
have or will hold, a regal position in relation the earthly, Messianic
has no "fellows" with whom
He shares a heavenly calling. God is not called to heaven. Jesus is shown here,
to have such "fellows," those who were called to heaven as he was. In
addition, who has given Jesus his throne? Who has anointed Jesus with the "oil
of gladness?" The One called his God in verse 9. Yes, Jesus has one Who is his
God, one Who is above him and, One Whom he serves as High Priest!—Hebrews 2:17;
3:1; 4:14; 6:20; 8:1; 9:11.
"Isaiah 9:6 -Jesus (the
Messiah) is called the Mighty God. "For unto us a child is born, unto us a
son is given, and the government shall be upon his shoulder; and his name
shall be called wonderful, Counselor, The Mighty God, the Everlasting
Father, the Prince of Peace." 
 It is said of Jesus
that, in the future he will be called (among other things) the Mighty God. We
have already learned that others than the Creator, Jehovah are called gods in
some sense. Jehovah is called the Almighty God, which is a designation above
Mighty God. Jesus and the holy spirit are never called the Almighty God. Jesus
can be referred to as the Mighty God without elevating him to the position of
the Almighty God.
"Matthew 1:23 -Jesus is
called Immanuel which means "God with us." "Behold the virgin
shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name
Immanuel, which being interpreted, is God with us." 
 The name Immanuel is
defined when translated, "God with us." This is the meaning of the word. It is
not a description of a situation. It is not a description of God being present
with mankind in the person of Jesus when he was on the earth. The name Elihu is
defined as "God is he." This does not mean that Elihu was God; it is only the
meaning of his name. There are many men with the name Immanuel, Emmanuel or the
shortened form Manuel today; this does not mean that these men are God. The
claim that the one bearing the name Immanuel is God, contradicts the teaching of
the Bible that: "No man has seen God at any time."—John 1:18.
"Micah 5:2 -Jesus (the
Messiah) is everlasting. "But thou, Bethlehem, Ephrathah, though thou be
little among the thousands of Judah, yet our of thee shall come forth unto me
that is to be the ruler in Israel, whose goings forth have been from of
old, from everlasting." 
 Micah 5:2 (1:5 in
some Jewish translations, since they use the verse number first then the chapter
number,) as found in the King James Version is the result of a limited
and incorrect understanding of Hebrew. More recent translations of the Bible
show the correct understanding of the words through Micah:
"One whose origin is from of old, From ancient times."—Tanakh The Holy
"one whose origins are far back in the past, in ancient times."—The
Revised English Bible, 1989.
"one whose origin is from of old, from ancient days."—The New Revised
Standard Version, 1989.
"one whose origins are from the distant past."—New Living Translation,
"whose origins are far in the past, back in ancient times."—Complete
Jewish Bible, 1998.
"whose origin is from of old, from ancient days."—The Holy Bible
English Standard Version, 2001.
The following translations
read as above, or similarly: Isaac Leeser; Moffatt; New American Bible; The
Jerusalem Bible; George R. Noyes; Ronald Knox; An American Translation;
Byington; New International Version; The New International
Commentary of the Old Testament, Leslie C. Allen; Concise Critical Bible
Commentary, Robert Young; and the New World Translation. God does not
have origin (a beginning of life). The Son does have a beginning of life; the
Son is not God. A comment from the Keil and Delitzsch series of commentaries
(1850s -1870s) is most enlightening:
Coming forth out of
Bethlehem involves the idea of descent. Consequently we must not restrict
(his goings forth) to the appearance of
the predicted future Ruler in the olden time, or to the revelation of the
Messiah as the Angel of Jehovah even in the patriarchal age, but must also so
interpret it that it at least affirms His origin as well…the words affirm both
the origin of the Messiah before all worlds and His appearances in the olden
can only affirm the going forth from God
at the creation of the world, and in the revelations of the olden and primeval
times.—Biblical Commentary of the Old Testament, The Twelve Minor Prophets,
Volume II. pp. 480-1.
The commentary by Theodore
Laetsch (Concordia Publishing, Saint Louis, Missouri) also sheds light on the
message of Micah 5:2:
The word [olam,
"undisclosed time," "hidden time"] tells that the Ruler would issue from
Bethlehem, not from the royal city Jerusalem. The context, however, very clearly
defines this going forth as the bring forth by she "which travaileth" v.3), as
the birth of a human child by a human mother,…Scripture speaks of another birth
of this Child, born at Bethlehem of a human mother. God Himself, speaking to His
Anointed, the Messiah, tells Him Ps. 2:7 ["You are my son, today I have become
your father."] Wisdom the Son of God, speaks of His birth before all times (Pro.
or, "Jehovah begot me" or "created me," in many
translations])…it is to this birth in the timeless eons of eternity that Micah
refers here.—pp. 271-2. See TTDE pp. 108-120.
The American Standard
Version sums up the situation which settles any question of the rank of the
one to be born in Bethlehem, with the words of Micah 5:4: "And he shall stand,
and shall feed his flock in the strength of Jehovah, in the majesty of
the name of Jehovah his God:" This personage to be born in Bethlehem, and to be
the ruler in Israel, as far as God was concerned, would do his work and feed his
flock in the 'majesty of the name of his God Jehovah'! One who has someone else
as his God cannot be the Most High.
"Zechariah 12:10 -God
uses the first person ("me") and the third person ("him") to describe Himself
as the one who will be pierced. ["]And I will pour upon the house of David,
and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the Spirit of grace and of
supplications; and they shall look upon ME whom they have pierced
and they shall morn for HIM , as one mourneth for his only
so, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his
firstborn." (emphasis theirs). 
 On Zechariah 12:10,
the Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar, informs:
The Relative Pronoun…This
use of 9[a
[asher, phonetically, ah.SHARE] is
generally rendered in English by he who, he whom (according to the
context [that is if it is the nominative or the objective case]), or that
which & c., of sometimes of such of a kind…In Zc 1210
also, instead of the unintelligible
[elai eth asher, "to me whom"], we should
[el asher, "to him whom"].—pp.444-6 and
When Zechariah 12:10 is
quoted at John 19:37, we find the words "him," "the One," or, "the man." "Me"
was not found in the more than 50 translations/versions consulted. The one that
was "pierced," "thrust through" and "impaled," was not Jehovah. A.E. Kirkpartick
stated: "it is Jehovah who has been thrust through in the Person of His
representative."—The Doctrine of the Prophets, p. 472.
"John 1:1 -Jesus (the
"Word") is God. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God." 
 Now we approach a
consideration of the verse on which more controversy has been generated, than,
perhaps, any other in Scripture, John 1:1. First, we should keep in mind that
John 1:1 speaks of only two individuals, not three; therefore, it cannot by used
to "prove," nor, even, to indicate, that God is a trinity, consisting of, to
coin a phrase, 'a committee of three equal partners.' What is the correct
translation of this verse? Grammar and scriptural harmony must be carefully
considered. We will produce the Greek text of Westcott and Hort of John 1:1 with
a interlinear word-for-word literal translation:
jEn ajrch'/ h\n
oJ lovgo" kaiV oJ lovgo" h\n proV" toVn qeovn kaiV qeoV" h\n oJ lovgo"
in (a) beginning was the
word and the word was toward the God and a god was the
Our attention is drawn to
the phrase "and a god was the word." The words with the article ("the") before
them such as "word" and the first occurrence of "god") should be capitalized
when rendering them into English. The use of the article (oJ
ho, with the rough breathing mark (
over it, pronounced, hah) makes the noun following it definite, (who or what the
subject is) and the noun should begin with a capitol letter to conform to
English grammar and usage. Therefore, in regular English translations, we should
find, "the Word," and "with the God" or, "with God." The last occurrence of the
word "god" (qeoV",
pronounced, theh.AHS) is without the definite article, therefore, the English
indefinite article (the word "a") should be inserted before it in English
translations, and in other languages having indefinite articles, in order
to comply with the idiom
of such languages (if the noun without the definite article, in English, begins
with a vowel or a vowel sound, the form "an" is used in English). This rule
applies to nouns which are with the nominative case, (especially to
predicate nominatives, also called predicate nouns) not to nouns with other
cases, e.g. qeoVn
at John 1:18 which is with the accusative
case. (Greek does not have indefinite articles; Latin, by-the-way, does not have
either definite nor indefinite articles.)
This procedure, of inserting the "a" before
unarticled (anarthrous) nouns with the nominative case, is demonstrated in J.
Gresham Machen's New Testament Grammar For Beginners:
The verb eijmiv
["I am" or, any form thereof, such as
"was" at John 1:1c] takes a predicate nominative, not an accusative, to complete
its meaning. Examples:
oJ ajpovstolo" a[nqrwpoÈ"
ejstin, [literal translation: "the
apostle man is"] the apostle is a man [the word order has been
changed and the "a" has been inserted to conform to English grammar and
usage]…in the sentence the apostle is a man, it is not asserted that the apostle
does anything to a man. A man, therefore, stands here not in the
accusative case but in the predicate nominative.—p. 50.
In the above sentence, "a
man," has the significance of 'one who is manly,' 'one who is courageous,
decisive, responsible for his actions.' The characteristics, the qualities, of
this person are being described, not his position nor his rank, not, who or what
he is, but, how he is. How does this effect the proper
understanding the last phrase of John 1:1? This last phrase is called John 1:1c
by scholars. What have they said on the construction and meaning of John 1:1c?
There is no basis for
regarding the predicate theos as definite…In John 1:1 I think that the
qualitative force of the predicate [noun] is so prominent that the noun cannot
be regarded as definite.—Philip Harner, Journal of Biblical Literature,
Volume 92:1m, 1973, pp. 85, 7. (This rules out the translation: "the Word was
Grammatically, John 1:1 is
not a difficult verse to translate. It follows familiar, ordinary structures of
Greek expression. a lexical ("interlinear") translation of the controversial
clause would read: "And a god was the Word." A minimal literal ("formal
equivalence") translation would rearrange the word order to match proper English
expression: "And the Word was a god." The preponderance of evidence, from Greek
grammar, from literary context, and from cultural environment, supports this
translation, of which "the Word was divine" ["divine" in Moffatt; An American
Translation; Stringfellow, et al.] would be a slightly more polished variant
carrying the same basic meaning. Both of these renderings are superior to the
traditional translation which goes against these three key factors that guide
accurate translation. The NASB [New American Standard Bible], NIV [New
International Version], and NAB [New American Bible] follow the
translation concocted by the KJV [King James Version] translators. This
translation awaits a proper defense, since no obvious one emerges from Greek
grammar, the literary context of John, or the cultural environment in which John
is writing.—Jason David BeDuhn, associate professor of religious studies at
Northern Arizona University, Flagstaff; Truth In Translation, Lanham, New
York, Oxford, University Press of America, Inc., 2003, p. 132.
What is meant by the
New World Translation by the rendering: "and the Word was a god"? In
of its 1984 large print reference edition, we find:
Jesus—A Godlike One;
Jhn 1:1—"and the Word
was a god (godlike; divine)"
kaiV qeoV" h\vn loÈgo"
(kai the.os´ en ho lo´gos)
…a singular anarthrous
predicate noun preceding the verb points to a quality about someone. Therefore,
John's statement that the Word or Logos was "a god" or "divine" or "godlike"
does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a
certain quality about the Word, or Logos, but it does not identify him as one
and the same as God himself.—p. 1597.
So, then, the New World
Translation, along with others which read the same or similarly, do not mean
that the Word (the Son of God in his prehuman existence) was 'one of a group of
beings called gods,' nor 'a second god,' but, 'one who
has godly qualities.' The
Word was a god, not a god. The same
type of description, with the same Greek construction, (syntax), being used,
(i.e. an anarthrous predicate nominative occurring before the verb, the verb
being a form of
eijmiÈ) is found at John 6:70, where
Jesus, speaking of Judas, says: "Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is
a devil?" Judas was not Satan; Judas was not the equal of Satan; Judas was not
one of the demons; Judas had the qualities of one who was devil-like,
diabolical, a devil , not a devil (not
one of the devils). (For more on this see TTDE, pp.
"Revelation 22:6, 16
-The book of Revelation says that Jesus and God are the same. (v6) "And he
said unto me, These words are faithful and true; and the Lord God
of the holy prophets sent his angel to show unto his
servants the things which must shortly be done." (v 16) "I, Jesus, have
sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches…"
 God sent His angel;
Jesus sent his angel. They both have angels in their service. God sent one,
Jesus sent one. This does not show that Jesus and God are the same. It does show
that God is an individual differentiated from Jesus; God is not Jesus; Jesus is
not God. Jesus is another individual different from God. Revelation 21:9 tells
us that "one of the seven angels which had the seven vials full of the seven
last plagues," was sent to John with additional knowledge from God, his giving
of the additional knowledge continues up to 22:15. Then, Jesus begins to speak
at verse 16, informing the readers of the book of Revelation, that he sent his
angel in the role of a messenger, as first taught in chapter one. The angel in
chapters 21 and 22 is in addition to the one spoken of in chapter one. The angel
which gave John the messages for the seven congregations in the Roman province
of Asia, was not the same angel of chapters 21 and 22.
"Every knee shall will
bow to both God and Jesus. Here are verses talking about every knee bowing to
God. "Look unto me and be saved, all the end of the earth; for
I am God and there is none else. … that unto me every knee shall bow,
every tongue shall swear" (Isaiah 45:22, 23b)." 
"Here are verses talking
[about] every knee bowing to Jesus. "… stand before the
Judgment Seat of Christ. For it is written, As I live saith the Lord,
every knee should bow to me and every tongue shall confess to God."
(Romans 14:10b, 11) "That in the name of Jesus every knee should bow
… and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord."
(Philippians 2:10a, 11a)" 
 In these verses we
are taught that 'every knee should bow to God and every knee should bow to
Jesus.' Both God and Jesus are due this honor, this does not make them equal.
God is shown to be One different from Jesus. No one is ever spoken of as bowing
the knee to the holy spirit. At Revelation 4:8b-10, we read: "Holy, holy, holy,
Lord God Almighty, Which was, and is, and is to come." And when those beasts
give glory and honour and thanks to Him That sat on the throne, Who liveth for
ever and ever, The four and twenty elders fall down before Him That sat on the
throne and cast their crowns before the throne." The Lord God Almighty (Jehovah)
receives something which neither Jesus nor the holy ever receive; the crowns of
the elders are cast before Him. This shows that the elders acknowledge the fact
of having received their authority from the Lord God Almighty (Jehovah) such
honor and acknowledgment is never given to Jesus nor the holy spirit. Let it be
observed, that we are told of "Him" (one Person, not 'them') Who sat on the
throne. No trinity taught here! No equality of Father and Son taught here!
"John 5:23 -We have to
honor Jesus the same way as God the Father. "That all men should honor the
Son even as they honor the Father. He that honoreth not the Son honoreth
not the Father who hath sent him." 
 Yes, all men should
honor the Son "in the same way as they honor the Father." Observe,
please, this says "in the same way" this claim is correct, "in the same way."
This does not say: 'to the same degree.' The word "as" is from the Greek
(kathos, phonetically, kah.THOS). On this word
the Thayer's Lexicon says: "kaqwV"…1.
according as, just as, even as…Jn.
I.23; v.23…2. according as i.e. in proportion as, in the
degree that:" —p. 315. (John 5:23 is not listed as an example of, "in
proportion as, in the degree that.") This shows that the Son must be honored in
the same way, not to the same degree. What is to be given to the Son and the
Father is the same type of honor, not worship. We honor both Father and Son by
giving them love, respect and obedience. That such can be given in different
degrees while giving such in the same way, is illustrated by what the women of
Israel gave King Saul and David after a victory
over the enemies of
Jehovah, as recorded at 1 Samuel 18:7: "And the women answered one another
as they played, and said, "Saul hath slain his thousands, And David his ten
thousands." And Saul was very wroth, and the saying displeased him; and he said,
"They have ascribed unto David ten thousands, and to me they have ascribed
but thousands, and what can he have more but the kingdom?" So, then, the
honor was of the same type, however, not to the same degree or level. So it is
with the Father and the Son. As we have seen in Revelation the Father and the
Son are both given honor, but the Father is given even more honor. No honor is
ever said to be given, or, should be given, to the holy spirit.
"Both God and Jesus are
called our "Savior." Here are verses calling God our savior. "…I an He,
before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me. I, even, I
am the Lord ["LORD,"
in KJV = Jehovah] and besides me there is no savior."
(Isaiah 43:10b, 11) "…And there is no God else beside me, a just God and
Savior; there is none beside me." (Isaiah 45:21b)" 
"Here are verses calling
Jesus our savior. ["]Neither is there salvation in any other;
for there is no other name under heaven given among men, whereby
we must be saved." (Acts 4:12) "But hath in due time manifested his words
preaching, which is
committed unto me according to the commandment of God, our Savior;"
(Titus 1:3) Not purloin-
ing, but showing all
good fidelity, that they may adorn the doctrine of God, our Savior
, in all things." (Titus 2:10) "But
after the kindness and
love of God, our Savior, toward man appeared." (Titus 3:4) "To
Titus, mine own son after the common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God,
the Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ, our Savior. (Titus 1:4)
"Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior,"
(Titus 3:16)" 
 As noted in number
"" above, others were designated "saviors" by Jehovah God, the supreme Savior
to act for Him as saviors for special purposes. This fact did not make them the
equal of Almighty God. Acts 4:12, of course, speaks of the only name under
heaven (not, 'in heaven') by which given among men by which they may get
saved is that of the savior whom God sent, Jesus Christ. "In this was manifested
the love of God towards us, because that God sent His only begotten Son; into
the world, that we might live through Him….And we have seen and do testify that
the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world." 1 John 4:9, 14.
Titus 1:4 and 3:6 do name Jesus as "Saviour." This is in keeping with number
"" above. Titus 1:3; 2:10 and 3:4, do not name Jesus as savior, as asserted
by the BibleHelp.org paper.
"Both God and Jesus
created all things. Here are verses that say God created all
things. "Ah, Lord God ["GOD"
in KJV = Jehovah]! Behold, thou hast made the heaven and the
earth by thy great power and outstretched arm, and there is nothing
too hard for thee:… the Great, the Mighty God, the Lord ["LORD"
in KJV, and other versions = Jehovah] of hosts, is his name,"
(Jeremiah 32:17, 18b) Have we not all one father? Hath not one God
created us? (Malachi 2:10b) "Thus saith the Lord ["LORD"
in KJV = Jehovah, "the" before
not in Hebrew text, translation should read: "Thus saith Jehovah"], thy
redeemer, and he who formed thee from the womb: I am the Lord ["LORD"
in KJV and other versions = Jehovah, "the" before "LORD"
not in Hebrew text here too, also "am" is in italics, translation should read:
"I Jehovah"] who maketh all things; who stretcheth forth the heavens alone;
who spreadeth abroad the earth by myself." (Isaiah 44:24) "And, Thou, Lord,
in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the Heavens are
the worlds [sic: should be "works"] of thine hand[s]." (Hebrews 1:10 [quoting
Psalm 101 (102):25, in the Greek Septuagint Version, is not the same as
the Hebrew text) 
 Of course, the
Creator, the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ is the One Who created the heavens
and the earth.—Genesis 1:1.
"Here are verses that
say Jesus created all things "…Holy, holy, holy, Lord God
almighty, who was, and is, and is to come. … Thou art worthy, O Lord, to
receive glory and honor and power; for thou has[t]
created all things, and for thy pleasure they were [and are, KJV]
created." (Revelation 4:8b, 11) "All things were made by him (Jesus), and
without him was not anything made that was made." (John 1:3) "Who is the
image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; For by him
all things were created, that are in heaven and that are in earth,
visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or
principalities, or powers - all things were created by him and
for him. And he is before all things, and by him all things consist."
(Col[ossians]. 1:15, 16) "[God] Hath in these last days spoke[n] unto us by
his Son, whom He hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made
the worlds." (Hebrews 1:2) 
 Revelation 4:8b, 11,
speak of the Lord God Almighty; this is the Father, Jehovah, not the Son, as we
have shown in number "" above. John 1:3 says in the New American Standard
Version: "All things came into being through Him; and apart from Him nothing
came into being that has come into being." Notice "through Him," the word
"through" comes from the Greek
(dia, phonetically, deh.AH "through" or "by")
the use of diaV
is very significant; in A Manuel Grammar Of The Greek New Testament, by
Dana and Mantey, (both were professors at Baptist theological seminaries) we
is occasionally used to express agency, it does not approximate the full
strength of upov
[sic: should be
phonetically, hüe.PAH]. This distinction throws light on Jesus' relation to the
creation, implying that Jesus was not the absolute, independent creator, but
rather, the intermediate agent in creation…Jn 1:3…Heb 1:2…(Cf. Mr. 1:22; Lk.
2:18; Jn. 1:10)…(2) Passive With Intermediate Agent. When the agent is
the medium through which the original cause has effected the action expressed by
the passive verb. The regular construction is
with the genitive.
pavnta di È
autou' ejgevneto. All things were made
through him. Here God the Father is
thought of as the original cause of creation and the
as the intermediate agent. See also: Mt. 1:22; Gal. 3:18.—pp. 102, 162.
The Son of God was the
agent, the intermediate cause, of bringing about the making of those things
which his Father and God, (Ephesians 1:3) wished should be made; the Logos, the
Word, is not identified as the original cause of those things. As it is
written in John 1:10: "He was is in the world, and the world was made through [di
v1] Him, and the world did not
know Him."—New American Standard Version.
Hebrews 1:1, 2, also,
bears out this teaching of Holy Scripture, when it declares: "God Who at sundry
times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Hath in these last days spoken unto us by His Son, Whom He hath appointed
Heir of all things, by Whom also He make the worlds:" Yes, God made the worlds
by His Son. Just as He had spoken previously to the fathers by the prophets,
they being God's agents. Both the Son and prophets were used by the Almighty,
Jehovah, to do that which Jehovah decided should be done. They were not Jehovah
nor the equal of Jehovah; they were His chosen servants to perform His will. The
Son of God is spoken of as the servant of Jehovah in Isaiah 52:13; 53:11; note
the context of Isaiah 52:13–53:12 which record inspired prophecies concerning
the future Messiah, the Son of God, Jesus the Christ.
Colossians 1:15, 16
denotes that the Son is the image of the invisible God. The original of must
first exist before there can be an image of it. The Father, Jehovah, is the
Original; Jesus the Son, is the image of the Original. This is confirmed by the
Son being called: "The first-born of all creation." [New American Standard
Version, et al.; KJV: "the Firstborn of every creature."]. The
expression "first-born of," in Scripture, always mans the first and/or, the
strongest, the most important one of the group of which the one called the
"first-born" is a member. (Cf.. Genesis 25:13; Exodus 6:4; 11:15 (thrice); 12:29
(thrice); 13:13, 15 (thrice); 22:29; 34:20; Numbers 3:13, 40, 46, 50: 8:16, 17;
18:15; Joshua 17:1 1 Chronicles 1:29; 2:3, 13, 25, 27, 50; 9:31; Nehemiah 10:36;
Job 18:13; Psalms 135:8; Isaiah 14:30 and Colossians 1:15, (36 occurrences), all
with the common meaning, 'the one coming into existence first and/or the most
important, or strongest one of the group identified. Of what group or category
is the Son identified as being a member?: Creation! He is, one of that group, a
part of, that entity, called, "creation."
(Some have, erroneously,
tried to find in 1 Chronicles 26:10 an exception to the above. Let us see if it
is. "Also Hosah, of the children of Merari has sons; Simri the chief, (for
though he was not the firstborn, yet his father made him the chief;" (some
translations read "first"). It is not written, Simri was made
"first-born" by his father; he was made the head of the family under his father,
Merari. Simri still has one who was the first-born, nothing could change that
fact. Both Simri and the actual "first-born" had a beginning of life. First
Chronicles 26:10 has no relevance when studying the phrase "the first-born of,"
which is a genitive setting ("of" or, "from") according to Greek and Hebrew
If "all things" at
Colossians 1:16 is taken in the absolute sense, then the Son of God brought
himself and even his God into existence. Such a thought is clearly untenable,
unthinkable. The fact that the Son is "the first-born of all creation" those
things which came into existence after he did, must be described as all the
other things that were produced by the Son acting as the agent for his Father.
That even God, Himself is identified as one of the things, Cf. 1 Corinthians
1 di È,
is the shortened (elided) form of diaV.
Words in Greek are elided by dropping the last letter to avoid a repetition of
sounds when a word ends with the same sound with which the next word begins, or
when the next word begins with a vowel. This does not change the meaning of the
We find a similar thought
at 1 Corinthians 8:5, 6: "For though there be that are called gods, whether in
heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) But to us there
is but one God, the Father, of [Greek,
ex, phonetically, ex; "out of"] Whom are
all things and we in Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ by [di
È] are all things, and we by [di
È] Him." The One God here acknowledged is
the Father, the One from Whom all things are. The Son is the means by which the
One God of Christians had all things—other than God and His Son—come to have
life or, existence.
This thought is confirmed
by an observation from The Interpreters Bible:
But Paul meant much more
than the affirmation of heontheism the restriction of worship to the God of the
Christian faith. In his eyes only one is really God, the Father of all, who is
the creator and consummation of all things. So likewise Jesus Christ was not one
Lord among many. He is the only true Lord, one who shared his place with no
other because he is the one mediator of creation. Paul chose his prepositions
["out of," "by," "through"] carefully in order to distinguish between God the
Father, who is the ultimate source of creation, and Christ the Lord, through
whom this activity took place.—Volume X, p. 93.
Heinrich August Wilhelm
Meyer wrote in his Critical and Exegetical Handbook to the Epistles to the
it means that Jesus
Christ, in His premundane existence, is the Son of God…was He through whom God
brought about the creation of the world…Christ in the physical creation, is the
causa medians [an intermediate cause] Just as we Christians have but one God,
the true Creator, whose designs we serve; so, to, we have but one Lord, the true
Mediator, to whom all things owe their being, and we our Christian existence
that which we are as Christians.—p. 242, in some editions pp. 187, 8.
"Both God and Jesus
raised Jesus from the dead. Here are verses that say God raised
Jesus from the dead. "And to wait for his Son from Heaven, whom He
raised from the dead, even [sic: should be "even"] Jesus, who
delivered us from the wrath to come." (1 Thes[salonians]. 1:10) "But if the
Spirit, of him that that raised up Christ from the
dead shall also give life to your mortal bodies by his Spirit
that dwelleth in you." (Romans 8:11)" 
 Did Jesus
participate in his own resurrection? We will explore the answer as we proceed.
Of course, God the Father, Jehovah, raised his Son from the dead.
"Here are verses that
say Jesus raised Himself from the dead. "Jesus answered, and
said unto them Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
(John 2:19) "Therefore doeth [sic: should be "doth"] my Father love me,
because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man
taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down,
and I have power to take it again. (John 10:17, 18a)" 
 On John 2:19: Jesus
raised himself in the same sense that Hebrews 11:7 says that Noah condemned the
world: "By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with
fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the
world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith." How did Noah
condemn the world? Certainly, he did not have the power nor the means to do so.
He condemned the world by showing faith, obedience and to what God commanded him
to do. Noah showed that such was humanly possible, that Jehovah was not asking
too much of mankind to live a decent honorable life, and to believe the warnings
of God. Thus, Noah (and his family) gave Jehovah the legal and moral grounds for
destroying the wicked world of that time.
So, too, the Son of God
demonstrated the same qualities that Noah had, faith, obedience and faithfulness
to his God. In these ways he gave Jehovah the legal and moral grounds for
resurrecting His Son. At Revelation 1:18 (as we have already read) Jesus
declared: "I am he that liveth, and was dead;" one who is dead cannot
carry any activity, let alone resurrect himself from the dead.
On John 10:17, 18a (and
18b): Even reading these verses from the KJV, with the words: "take it
again," the implication is obvious that he had 'taken' his life previously. This
first 'taking of life' occurred as described at Proverbs 8:22-31 and Micah 5:2,
as we have already studied. Verse 18b confirms that Jesus was speaking of the
"power" he had received from his Father, when he said: "This commandment have I
received of my Father." The Greek word from which "power" is derived is
(exousia, phonetically, ex.u.SEE.ah) it is
translated in many versions as "authority."
The New American
Standard Version reads on these verses: "For this reason the Father loves
Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. 'No one has taken it
away from Me, but I lay it down on My own initiative. I have authority to lay it
down, and I have authority to take it up again. This commandment I received from
My Father." Even more explicit renderings are found in The New English Bible,
The Revised English Bible and The Scriptures (along with others):
"The Father loves me because I lay down my life, to receive it back again. No
one has robbed me of it; I am laying it down of my own free will. I have the
right to lay it down, and I have the right to receive it back again; this charge
I have received from my Father." In saying "receive it back again," Jesus is
acknowledging that he had received his life once before, and he would receive
once again when he would be resurrected. Jesus received his life from the
Father, not only once but twice. One who has received life is not the Creator,
Jehovah God, nor His equal.
("Receive it again," or,
"receive it back again," found also in Twentieth Century New Testament;
Rotherham; Weymouth; Young's Concise Critical Bible Commentary; Improved
Version, 1808; The Four Gospels, Nathan S. Fol- som; The Syriac New
Testament, James Murdoch; The New Testament, William Barclay; New
"Receive" in "receive it
back" and "received" in "this command I have received from my Father," are taken
from forms of the same Greek word
(lambano, phonetically, lahm.BAHN.oh). Passive voice (when the subject receives
the action) uses of lambano are found also in Luke 6:34; John 14:17; Acts 3:3,
5; 26:18; Hebrews 10:26.) Lambano is defined in various lexicons as:
"receive (what is given);
to gain, get, obtain…to receive, get back…Jn. x :18—Thayer's, p. 317.
"Originally meaning of
'again' repetition of a previous action.—Moulton and Milligan, Vocabulary of
the Greek New Testament. p. 475.
What previous action was
to be repeated at the resurrection of the Son of God?: The giving of life to him
by his Father and God: "Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet
ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto
my Father, and your Father; and to My God and your God. —John 20:17.
This ends our
consideration of the points listed in the BibleHelp.org, "Reference
Section 2." We have seen that what that paper claimed, is not in harmony with
the Biblical witness of the Word of God concerning the relationship of God and
Now, we turn our attention
to another paper issued by BibleHelp.org; we will list the scriptures and
applicable text in that paper:
"Reference Section 1:
Verses Teaching the Trinity (This section provides a quick overview of the
verses showing our God is "three in one") Verses saying Jesus is God:…Heb.
1:8…Isa. 9:6…Mt.1:23 Is.7:14…John 1:1…1 Tim. 3:16…Col. 2:8, 9…John 20:28…Titus
2:13…Phil. 2:5, 6…John 5:18 …John 10:30…Gen.1:1; Col 1:16…Mi. 5:2 Isa.
44:6…Rev. 1:2, 8, 11, 13 [we have treated these scriptures above] Verses
saying the Father is God: John 8:41 "The only Father we have is
God Himself" Eph. 4:6 "one God and Father of all…"
We now consider scriptures
which were not included in "Reference Section 2" of the BibleHelp.org
paper, but are included in their "Section 1":
"Verses saying the
holy Spirit is God: Acts 5: 3, 4 "…you have lied to the Holy
Spirit … you have not lied to men, but to God." 
 Reading the entire
account of Ananias, Acts 2:1-4, will shed much light on the matter:
But a certain man named
Ananias, with Sapphira his wife, sold a possession, And kept back part of
the price, his wife also being privy to it, and brought a certain part,
and laid it at the apostles' feet. But Peter
said, Ananias, why hath
Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Ghost, and to keep back part
of the price of the land? Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it
was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived this thing in
thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God.
The money was laid at the
feet of the apostles. Are we then, to conclude, that the apostles were not men?
Are we to conclude that the apostles were the holy spirit? Are we to conclude
that somehow the apostles were God? Of course the meaning is: 'You have lied
[or, "played false"] to not only men but the holy spirit and to God.'
The account of Jonah will
help us see the accurate meaning in the message through Peter. It is said of
Jonah in the book which is called by his name, that Jonah finally arrived in
So Jonah arose, and went
unto Nineveh, according to the word of the LORD.
Now Nineveh, was an exceeding great city of three days' journey. And Jonah
began to enter the city a day's journey, and he
cried, and said, Yet forty
days, and Nineveh shall be overthrown. So the people of Nineveh believed God,
and proclaimed a fast, and put on sackcloth, from the greatest of them even to
the least of them.
Would it be reasonable to
conclude that Jonah was God, because it was said that the people "believed God,"
when Jonah was the one who spoke?
Some may ask: 'How can a
person 'lie to' or 'play false to,' something that is not a person? Scripture
contains examples of that being done. At Mark 4:39 it is written about Jesus:
"And he arose, and rebuked the wind, and said unto the sea. Peace, be still. And
the wind ceased and there was a great clam." At Luke 4:39 it is written: "And he
[Jesus] stood over her [Peter's mother-in-law], and rebuked the fever; and it
left her: and immediately she arose and ministered unto them." The prodigal son
was on his way home and he rehearsed his apology to be given to his father; he
thinks of the words he will use: "Father, I have sinned against heaven and
before thee." Are the wind and the sea, the fever, and heaven persons. No!
Therefore, it can be seen that non-livings entities can be said to receive an
action, without putting them in the class of living personages.
But, how can non-living
entities be 'lied to' or, 'played false to?' Notice this instance as recorded in
the Modern Language Bible (also known as The New Berkeley Version)
at James 3:14: "But if you cherish bitter jealously and rivalry in your hearts,
do not pride yourselves in this and play false to the truth." "be false to the
truth," English Standard Version. (Other translations read: "lie against
the truth," "attach the truth," or similarly.) "The truth" is said be receiving
an action. How is this possible?
We need to explore the
meaning of the Greek word
(pseudomai, phonetically, PSÜ.dah.my) forms of
which are used at Acts 5:3, 4 and James 3:14, it is defined in the Thayer
lexicon page 675, as: "To deceive, cheat…to show one's self deceitful, play
false…to lie, to speak deliberate false-hoods." "The truth" is not a person, the
use of yuVdomai
in connection with the holy spirit, does not automatically show the holy spirit
to be a person. Ananias was "playing false to God and to the spirit which was
given to Christians. This is just as one could say to one who has not fulfilled
his or her duty: 'You have played false to the trust given to you.'
"Acts 28:25, 26
Referring to Isaiah 6:9, 10, Peter [sic: should be "Paul"] said the "Holy
Spirit" spoke to the prophet Isaiah. In the book of Isaiah, it say the "Lord"
spoke to the prophet Isaiah." [30
 The answer is to this
is very simple; God spoke to Isaiah by means of the holy spirit. The holy sprit
was the medium through which Jehovah spoke to the prophets, just as it says in 2
Peter 1:20, 21: "Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any
private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of
man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. The
Holy Scriptures A New Translation From The Original Languages, by J.N.
Darby, the American Standard Version, and Young's Literal Translation,
record David saying at 2 Samuel 23:2"The Spirit of Jehovah s poke by me, And his
word was on my tongue. These verses show how God uses His holy spirit as one
means of communicating His thoughts to His servants. As Jesus said, when some of
the Pharisees objected to his disciples saying
Jesus: "Blessed be the King that cometh in the name of the Lord: peace in
heaven, and glory in the highest." Jesus responded: "I tell you that, if
these should hold their peace, the stones would immediately cry out." (Luke
19:37b, 38, 40) If 'the stones had cried out,' they
would not be living
personages; they would just be the means of communication, as is a loudspeaker
today. So it is with Jehovah using His holy spirit to be the same.
"1 Cor. 3:16 "Don't you
know you are God's temple and that God's Spirit lives in you?" 
 Yes, anointed, truly
born again Christians have God's spirit dwelling in them. That fact does not
make the spirit of God, God. The KJV, the American Standard Version
and the New American Standard Version, here, uses the phrase
"dwelleth (or, "dwells in you") instead of "living in you." The Greek word
rendered "dwelleth, "dwells" or "living" is
(oikeo, phonetically, oi.KEH.oh). It is used
both of living and non-living entities dwelling within someone. Romans 7:18, 20,
use forms of oikevw
and speak of good things not dwelling in
Paul and the sinful tendencies dwelling in him; these are not living entities.
Therefore, 1 Corinthians 3:16 cannot be used in an attempt to prove that God's
spirit is a person. See: Vine's Expository Dictionary Of New Testament Words,
"Verses saying there
is only one God: Mk. 12:32 "You are right in saying God is one and there
is no other but him." Mk. 12:21 [sic; should be, "Mk. 12:29"] "The Lord our
God, the Lord is one." 
The words translated "one"
in both of the above verses are very significant. In the Greek of Mk. 12:29, 32
the word translated "one" is
(eis, phonetically —because of rough breathing
mark over the diphthong
hace, rhymes with "ace");
has reference to a single object. Examples:
Matthew 8:19: "And a certain (ei|")
scribe came, and said to him, Master, I will follow thee whithersoever thou
goest." Matthew 9:18: "While he spake these things unto them, behold, there came
a certain [ei|"]
ruler, and worshipped him, saying, My daughter is even now dead: but come and
lay thy hand upon her, and she shall live." Mark 14:47: "And one (ei|")
of them that stood by drew a sword, and smote a servant of the high priest, and
cut off his ear." All these occurrences have reference to a single individual,
not a composite group identified as a unified combination. This is how God
Himself is identified; a single individual. Jehovah is shown to be a "him;"
Jehovah is not shown to be a 'them.'
The expression: "The Lord
["the", not in the Greek] our God, the ["the", not in the Greek] Lord is one,"
is a quotation from Deuteronomy 6:4 (the Great Shema, as it is called by the
Hebrew speaking people and others, after the first word in the verse, "Shema,"
"listen," or, "hear.") The American Standard Version reads at this verse:
"Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah" The Hebrew word for "one" is
(echod, phonetically, ekh.HAHD).
has same meaning (when used without
plural modifiers) as the Greek
a single individual or object. Examples: from Genesis chapter 42, verse 11: "We
are all one [echod] man's sons," verse 13:"And they said, "Thy servants
are twelve brethren, the sons of one [echod] man in the land of Canaan;
and, behold, the youngest is this day with our father, and one [echod]
is not." (These brothers of Joseph spoke of Benjamin, the youngest one
of the brothers, and of Joseph, the one whom they thought,
or, at least said, was dead.) At 1 Kings 4:19, we read: "Geber the son of Uri
was in the country of Gilead, in the country of Sihon king of the
Amorites, and of Og king of Bashan; and he was the only [echod] officer
which was in the land." All these uses of echod refer to a single person.
The Broadman Bible
Commentary offers this observation on
Deuteronomy 6:4, with reference to the Almighty:
He is unique…He is not
many, but one…Yahweh is a single unified person…one Lord is also opposite to
diffuse…His is single…God's person and his will are single…Israel is called to
concentrate its undivided attention in Yahweh himself. He alone is worthy of
full devotion and he is one-single and unique.
The Creator is identified,
in Scripture, as a monad, a single person, not as a God made up of more than one
individual. See TTDE pp. 26, 27 and Genesis 2:21: "one of his ribs;" 11:1: "one
language;" 19:9: "This one fellow;" 21:15: "one of the shrubs" etc. etc.
word 259 in the "Hebrew and Chaldee Dictionary" in Strong's Exhaustive
Concordance Of The Bible.
Tim. 2:5 "For there is one God…" 
 The complete verse
reads: "For there is one God, and one Mediator between God and men, the
Man Christ Jesus."
 We note that God and
Jesus are clearly mentioned as two different identities, God in one, Jesus in
another. God is Someone other than Jesus Christ.
Cor 8:4 "and there is no God but one." 
 In verse six of this
chapter the apostle Paul is inspired by God's holy spirit, to identify Who the
one God is: "But to us there is but one God, the Father," The One God to
Christians is the Father!
"Gal. 3:20 "…but God is one." 
 The full verse reads:
"Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one." The one God is
referenced using the word
once more He is shown to be a single
"James 2:19 "You believe there is one God. Good!…"
 Once again, the word
The one God is one, not several combined.
"Ps. 86:10 "…you alone are God." 
 The Psalm begins with
the supplication: "Bow down Thine ear, O LORD;"
(of course, the spelling "LORD"
makes it known that in the Hebrew text we find the name of God
(JHVH or YHWH, not the word
adon, "lord".) The One of Whom it is said: "you alone are God," is Jehovah, God
the Father. This excludes anyone else from being God.
"Deut. 6:4, 5 "The Lord our God, the Lord is one…" 
 In the KJV we
see: "Hear, O Israel: The LORD
our God is one LORD:
And thou shalt love the LORD
thy God with all thine
heart, and with all thy soul, and with
all thy might." Yes, Jehovah is one (echod); He is to be loved with all the
faculties mankind has. We have treaded this scripture in number "" above.
"Isa. 44:8 "Is there another God besides me?" 
 Here Jehovah speaks
to the prophet, as verse 2 shows ("Thus saith the LORD"),
declaring that there is no God but He. There is no other God; Jehovah is the one
and only Supreme Being.
"[changing the order of
the citations to conform to Biblical sequence; note: there is no "the" (h)
before the Name
in the in Hebrew text, "the," and
equivalents, have been added by English and other language translators] Isa.
45:5, 18, 21, 22; 46:9 [45:5]"I am the LORD,
and there is none else, there
is no God beside Me: I girded thee, through thou hast not known Me:"
[speaking to the future ruler of Babylon, Cryus] [45:18" "For thus saith the LORD
That created the heavens; God Himself That formed the earth and made it; he
hath established it, He created it not in vain, He formed it to be inhabited:]
"I am the LORD;
and there is none else." [45:21, 22] "Tell ye, and bring them
near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient
time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD?
and there is none beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is
none beside me. Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for
I am God, and there is none else." [46:9] "Remember the former
things of old: for I am God, and there is none else." 
 Truly, Jehovah is the
only God; there is no God but He.
"Mal. 2:10 Did not one God create us?" 
 One God did create
all humans; this He did through His Son (Hebrews 1:2) the one who later became
(NOTE: None of the
above scriptures mention three persons being the one God.)
From the scriptures
considered, we have learned that: (1) There is only one God; that one God is the
God and Father of the Lord Jesus Christ. (2) There is none besides Him, as far
as being the God Who created the spiritual realm and then
the physical universe. He
alone is the One Who is the Most High over all the earth; He, and He alone, is
the One known by the name Jehovah.—Psalms 83:18.
TEACHING THAT THE FATHER, JEHOVAH, IS THE ONE WITHOUT EQUAL, THAT NOT EVEN ONE,
NOT EVEN TWO OTHERS, SHARE WITH HIM THE KNOWLEDGE, WISDOM AND AUTHORITY UNIQUE
(UNLESS OTHERWISE NOTED, SCRIPTURE QUOTATIONS WILL BE
TAKEN FROM THE
Daniel 7:13, 14:
"I kept looking in the night visions, And
behold, with the clouds of heaven One like a Son of Man was coming, And He came
up to the Ancient of Days And was presented before Him. "And to Him was given
dominion, Glory and a kingdom, That all the peoples, nations, and men of
every language Might serve Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion
Which will not pass away; And His kingdom is one Which will not be destroyed."
(The Son is given all that he has and will have, by his Father, the "Ancient of
Days." If the Son were the equal of his Father and God in the highest sense of
the word, he would not need to be given these, there could be no one who could
give them to him, he would have them from all eternity.) Matthew 28:18b: "All
power is given (emphasis added) unto me in heaven and in earth."
"Then the mother of the sons of Zebedee came to Him with her sons, bowing down,
and making a request of Him. And He said to her, "What do you wish?" She said to
Him, "Command that in Your kingdom these two sons of mine may sit, one on Your
right and one on Your left." But Jesus answered and said, "You do not know what
you are asking for. Are you able to drink the cup that I am about to drink?"
They said to Him, "We are able." He said to them, "My cup you shall drink; but
to sit on My right and on My left, this is not Mine to give, but it is for those
for whom it has been prepared by My Father."— (Jesus did not have the authority
to say who would have what positions in his Kingdom; such could only be given by
Mark 13:32: "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels
of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone." (Only the Father had knowledge of
the day and hour of the end of the wicked system under Satan. The Son did not
know; the holy spirit did not know, the Father alone knew. If the Son and the
holy spirit were God, co-equal with the Father, Jehovah, they would also have
known; however, they did not!)
"God is spirit; and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth."
(When Jesus said this, he was not spirit, he was human. Therefore, he could not
be God as trinitarians would have others believe, that he was "truly God and
truly man in the flesh.)
"the Father is greater than I." What could be more obvious than that statement
by Jesus; his Father was greater than he. The full verse sheds much light on the
relative relationship between Father and Son: "You head that I said to you, 'I
go away, and I will come to you.'; If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced,
because I go to the Father for the Father is greater than I."
Christ was speaking of the
One in whose presence he would be when he returned to heaven. He would be in the
presence of his Father, Jehovah, he would be with the One, Who is and would be,
greater than he.
Some have said about the
word "greater," that it means higher in authority and position, and that it had
reference to the inferior position of Jesus on earth, because Jesus was a human
when he said it. However, with such a claim they deny the doctrine of the
trinity which asserts that Jesus, on earth, was fully man and fully God. 1 John
4:4 instructs: "You are from God; little children, and have overcome them;
because greater is He who is in you that he who is in the world. The One Who is
in the Christians is God; the one who is in the world is Satan. Is Jehovah, the
One Who is in the Christians, loving, kind, merciful, wise, all powerful, all
knowing? Of course! Satan has none of these qualities. We can see that
"greater," does not have to do with only authority or position.
What is the meaning of the
word "greater"? According to the Thayer lexicon we see: "meivzwn
[meizon, phonetically, MY.zohn] is used
of those who surpass others—either in nature and power, as God: Jn. x .
29…xiv . 28…or in excellence, worth, authority, etc." Meizon as used at John
14:28, includes the connotation of: "those who surpass others
—in nature and power, as
God." How does the Father, Jehovah, surpass the Son in nature? Jehovah never
had a beginning; He is from all eternity. The Son had a beginning, he being the
"first-born of all creation."
Jesus in prayer to his Father said: "And this is eternal life, that they may
know Thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent." (Jesus
identified his Father as the "only true God." "True" comes from the Greek
(alethinos, phonetically, al.ay.they.NAHS)
according to the Thayer lexicon in has the meaning of: "that which has
not only the name and semblance, but the real nature corresponding to the name:…in
every respect corresponding to the idea signified by the name, real and true,
genuine" (p. 27) Only the One to Whom Jesus prayed has all the real nature
and the only One Who has, in every respect, all that is signified by the word
"God." No one else is the equal of the Father in these attributes, not the Son
nor the holy spirit. The Father is "the only true God," God to the complete
degree, the highest degree.)
Acts 1:6, 7:
"And so when they had come together, they were asking Him, saying, "Lord, is it
at this time Your are restoring the kingdom to Israel?" He said to them, "It is
not for you to know times or epochs which the Father has fixed by His own
authority." (The Father is the One Who has fixed certain times or epochs by His
own authority; no one else has the authority to fix such.)
1 Corinthians 11:3:
"But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the man
is the head of a woman, and God is the head of Christ." (If Christ were the
equal of God, he could not have one who is his head, his superior, Christ does
have such a one. Christ cannot be God to the same level of his Father.)
1 Corinthians 15:28:
"And when all things are subjected to
Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all
things to Him, that God may be all in all." (God cannot be subjected to anyone;
the Son is subjected to his Father; he cannot be God.)
Revelation 3:2, 12:
The Son of God, the Lord Jesus
Christ, said to the congregation in Sardis: "Wake up, and strengthen the things
that remain, which were about to die; for I have not found your deeds completed
in the sight of My God…He who over comes, I will make him a pillar in the temple
of My God, and he will not go out from it any more; and I will write upon him
the name of My God and the name of the city of My God, the new Jerusalem, which
comes down out of heaven from My God, and My new name. (The Most High cannot
have one who is his God, the Son does. The Son cannot be the Most High.)
The doctrine of God being
a trinity of three co-equal persons in not a Biblical teaching, in fact, it is
an anti-Biblical teaching not worthy to be believed by true Christians!
A PRAYER FOR ALL:
"That the God of our Lord
Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give you a spirit of wisdom and of
revelation in the accurate knowledge of him; the eyes of your heart having been
enlightened, that you may know what is the hope to which he called you, what the
glorious riches are which he holds as an inheritance for the holy ones, and what
the surpassing greatness of his power is toward us believers."—Ephesians
1:17-19, New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.